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ACE CPT Exam Questions
Page 3 of 50
41.
What is the daily recommended fiber intake?
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20-30 grams per day
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10-15 grams per day
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15-20 grams per day
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25-35 grams per day
Correct answer: 20-30 grams per day
Carbohydrates come in many different forms and all have different nutritional benefits and consequences.
- Some carbohydrates are digestible and others are not.
- Some carbohydrates are considered complex and others are simple.
- Some carbohydrates contain soluble fiber and others contain insoluble fiber.
The average fiber intake in the United States is 10-15 grams per day, but the recommended intake is 20-30 grams or more per day.
42.
What role do the hamstrings have in hip extension?
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Agonist
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Synergist
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Stabilizer
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Antagonist
Correct answer: Agonist
Agonists are muscles that create movements, while antagonists oppose the movement. The antagonist muscles must relax in order for the movement to be performed. Synergists are muscles that assist but don't directly contribute to creating the motion. Synergists can also sometimes be stabilizers, maintaining the stability of a joint while the main movement pattern is performed.
The gluteus maximus and the hamstrings are both agonists that create hip extension. The antagonists include the hip flexor group. Movements that target these muscles in a hip extension pattern include:
- squat
- leg press
- lunge
- machine extension
43.
Why would a personal trainer cue a pregnant client to take increased rest periods during moderate-intensity exercise?
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Increased cardiac output
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Increased weight
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Increased fluid retention
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Hypertension
Correct answer: Increased cardiac output
Cardiac reserve, or the difference between resting and maximal cardiac function, is reduced in pregnant women. Increases in heart rate, blood volume, stroke volume, and cardiac output occur, making even everyday activities difficult for the cardiovascular system.
Weight gain, fluid retention, and hypertension are factors that may affect a client's total blood volume, but do directly explain why the cardiovascular system is more stressed during exercise.
44.
Which type of goals can motivational interviewing help set?
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Intrinsically motivated goals
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Extrinsically motivated goals
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Outcome goals
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Health outcome goals
Correct answer: Intrinsically motivated goals
Using the information from the client intake form as a guide, it's recommended that the personal trainer asks additional questions about the client's goals to get more specific responses. It's also helpful to inquire about timelines that the client wants to set for goal achievement.
Motivational interviewing techniques help to facilitate and set intrinsically motivated goals from a collaborative discussion.
45.
Which of the following elements of active listening involves listening to the content of a client's statements that may eventually need to be challenged?
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Identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities
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Observing mixed messages delivered in conversation
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Listening to spoken statements
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Understanding contextual anxiety
Correct answer: Identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities
Active listening is a communication form that utilizes both verbal and nonverbal skills that are necessary for communication in successful family, business, and therapeutic relationships. The four elements of active listening include:
- Listening to spoken statements
- Observing nonverbal cues
- Understanding contextual anxiety
- Identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities
If the trainer wants to identify statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities, this will involve listening to the content of a client's statements and realizing that they may eventually need to be challenged. It is important that the personal trainer acknowledges the client for sharing the information before respectfully but completely discussing any misinformation or myths that were mentioned.
46.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary ways in which the body avoids excessive heat loss?
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Thermogenesis
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Peripheral vasoconstriction
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Non-shivering thermogenesis
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Shivering
Correct answer: Thermogenesis
When the skin or blood temperature drops, the thermoregulatory center activates mechanisms that conserve body heat and increase heat production. There are three primary ways to do this:
- Peripheral vasoconstriction: By narrowing blood vessels in the skin, peripheral vasoconstriction reduces heat loss through conduction and convection.
- Non-shivering thermogenesis: Non-shivering thermogenesis is an energy-consuming process that uses brown adipose tissue to raise body temperature. Brown adipose tissue is a type of fat found in newborns and hibernating animals that produces heat when stimulated by the nervous system or hormones.
- Shivering: Shivering is an involuntary process in which the body shakes to generate heat. Although shivering increases the oxygen demand of muscles, it is a very efficient way to produce heat.
These processes are usually enough to maintain a normal body temperature but when they fail, as in hypothermia, medical intervention is needed.
47.
All of the following are primary goals of resistance training EXCEPT:
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Muscular definition
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Hypertrophy
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Muscular strength
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Muscular endurance
Correct answer: Muscular definition
The three main goals of a resistance training program are hypertrophy, muscular strength, and muscular endurance. Goals such as these have a specific volume and intensity required for each workout.
These goals are able to be measured, but it is difficult to create a measurable goal for muscular definition.
48.
All the following are target areas for an adolescent exercise program EXCEPT:
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Plyometric training
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Aerobic training
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Resistance training
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Bone-loading training
Correct answer: Plyometric training
One role of the personal trainer is to identify a variety of age-appropriate activities for children and adolescents that will safely and effectively develop aerobic, muscular, and bone strength.
It is recommended that children perform at least 60 minutes of physical activity every day. When designing an exercise program for children and adolescents, ACE recommends three target areas:
- Aerobic activity
- Resistance activity
- Bone-loading activities
Plyometrics are considered advanced level exercises, and they are not deemed appropriate for adolescents.
49.
Guidelines for professional standards of behavior and conduct are often outlined in which of the following?
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Code of ethics
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Business plan
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Scope of practice
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Professional liability
Correct answer: Code of ethics
A code of ethics generally provides a set of guidelines for appropriate behavior according to specific core values as well as the standards of the position and the industry. Examples of standards or guidelines that might be included in a code of ethics are:
- Honesty and transparency regarding professional certifications and professional limitations
- Practicing only within the scope of practice of the individual's certification
- Keeping client information confidential
- Respecting the rights of others, including clients and colleagues
Abiding by a code of ethics and specific standards of behavior helps to ensure that an individual is maintaining a high level of professional conduct.
50.
Scoliosis is defined as which of the following?
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A lateral deviation of the spine
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An anterior curve of the spine
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A posterior curve of the spine
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A compressed intervertebral disc
Correct answer: A lateral deviation of the spine
The spinal column is not a straight line; rather, it has four curves. These curves give the spine a mechanical advantage and improved load-bearing capabilities. In the frontal plane, the spinal column should normally be positioned in the midline.
Scoliosis is a condition where the spine has a significant lateral deviation and is no longer a straight line.
51.
Your client is recovering from a recent ankle sprain that occurred one week ago and is complaining of stiffness and mild discomfort with running. Which of the following phases of healing is this client MOST likely experiencing?
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Phase II
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Phase I
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Phase III
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Phase IV
Correct answer: Phase II
- Phase I occurs during the first 3 to 4 days. Also known as the inflammatory phase, where the tissue is the most irritated and swollen after the injury.
- Phase II occurs from 3 days up to 6 weeks. During phase II, the tissue is in the repair phase and regenerates any damaged tissue. Excessive scar tissue during this period may become adhesive and cause movement restrictions, such as in this example. Additionally, strength will not be back to normal for activities more demanding than everyday tasks.
- Phase III occurs from 4 weeks up to 2 years. Over time, collagen fibers realign and the tissue becomes gradually stronger with training. This is also the period where you will likely work on training to return to your sport.
Phase IV is not a reported phase of healing.
52.
Your client is complaining of 3/10 pain in his knee while performing a barbell squat. Should you modify the exercise, and if so, what is the proper substitution?
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Yes, substitute with a horizontal leg press
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No, only discontinue the exercise if pain is 4/10 or above
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Yes, substitute for a walking lunge
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Yes, substitute with a stationary bike
Correct answer: Yes, substitute with a horizontal leg press
If a client indicates pain above 3/10, the exercise should stop and modification or substitution should be implemented. A horizontal leg press is more stable due to the added support of a seat and should decrease knee stress.
A lunge will be even more stressful on the knee than a squat, so it is a poor substitution choice. A stationary bike is incorrect as it is a cardiovascular training machine; a proper substitution should be a leg strength exercise.
53.
When increasing intensity during resistance training, how will the repetitions be adjusted?
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Fewer repetitions will be performed
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More repetitions will be performed
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The repetitions will be performed more slowly
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The repetitions will be performed faster
Correct answer: Fewer repetitions will be performed
The intensity of resistance training is inversely related to the number of repetitions. In other words, when a client uses a higher resistance or load, fewer repetitions will be required to complete the set.
54.
Which type of stretching requires the use of a partner or assistive apparatus?
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Passive stretching
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Active stretching
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Static stretching
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Dynamic stretching
Correct answer: Passive stretching
The terms passive stretching and static stretching are often confused. Static stretching simply means holding a stretch position for a specified length of time, usually 10-30 seconds. Static stretching can either be active or passive.
Active stretching is when the individual performing the stretch is also providing the force needed to create the stretch. True passive stretching means that the stretch is provided by a partner or other means, such as a stretching strap.
Dynamic stretching involves actively moving joints through a range of motion, slowly increasing range and speed with successive repetitions.
55.
Which of the following BEST describes ballistic resistance training?
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A plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength
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A plyometric modality aimed at increasing stride length and frequency
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A plyometric modality aimed at increasing change in distance over time
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A plyometric modality aimed at increasing explosiveness and power development
Correct answer: A plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength
A plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength is known as ballistic resistance training. Traditional exercises are completed using a full range of motion where noticeable deceleration of the load occurs prior to a concentric phase. Examples of ballistic resistance training include jump squats, bench press throws, and shoulder press throws.
56.
Which of the following is considered an anabolic hormone?
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Androstenedione
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Caffeine
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Ephedrine
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Amphetamine
Correct answer: Androstenedione
Androstenedione is an anabolic hormone that helps to synthesize the hormone testosterone. It is marketed as a way to increase muscular strength and size.
Stimulants are ergogenic aids that primarily affect the central nervous system and heart, and they are theorized to improve athletic performance. Examples of stimulants are caffeine, ephedrine, and amphetamines.
57.
All the following are methods of progressive overload for resistance training EXCEPT:
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Increasing the rest periods
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Increasing the resistance
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Increasing the number of repetitions
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Increasing the number of sets
Correct answer: Increasing the rest periods
A trainer can ensure progressive overload in resistance training in a number of ways, including the following:
- Increasing the amount of resistance lifted
- Increasing the number of repetitions
- Increasing the number of sets done per muscle group
- Increasing the number of days per week the muscle groups are trained
However, by increasing the rest period, the muscle is allowed to recover for a longer period of time, and so this is considered a regression.
58.
In regard to the knee, which ligament is injured the most, ESPECIALLY in athletes?
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Anterior cruciate ligament
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Posterior cruciate ligament
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Lateral cruciate ligament
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Medial cruciate ligament
Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
Sprains and tears of knee ligaments are common injuries, especially in athletes. Specifically, due to its structure and insertion points, the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is injured more often than the posterior cruciate ligament. ACL injuries occur when external rotation of the tibia is combined with a valgus force on the knee.
59.
How long does it take blood glucose levels to peak after a meal?
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Approximately 1 hour
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Approximately 2 hours
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Approximately 30 minutes
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Approximately 3 hours
Correct answer: Approximately 1 hour
One main reason for recommending small and frequent meals to clients is to sustain blood sugar levels, as glucose is the primary fuel for the central nervous system. If the brain doesn't receive enough glucose, mental fatigue or brain fog will result. Naturally, mental fatigue leads to muscle fatigue.
The level of blood glucose in the body reaches its peak approximately one hour after a meal, and it is back to its pre-meal level about two hours after that.
60.
Cardiac output comprises which of the following pairs?
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Stroke volume and heart rate
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Heart rate and systolic blood pressure
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Stroke volume and end-diastolic volume
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Heart rate and diastolic blood pressure
Correct answer: Stroke volume and heart rate
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute is measured in liters and is known as cardiac output. It is the product of heart rate and stroke volume (HR x SV). The typical cardiac output is 4 to 5 liters per minute.