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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACE CPT Exam Questions

Page 4 of 50

61.

What is the difference between informed consent and the agreement to participate?

  • Informed consent outlines the potential discomfort involved.

  • Agreements to participate outline potential discomfort involved.

  • Informed consent can be given verbally.

  • Agreements to participate can be given verbally.

Correct answer: Informed consent outlines the potential discomfort involved.

The agreement to participate outlines the assumed risks of participation and normal outcomes of the given physical activity. The informed consent, however, contains a detailed list of the possible discomforts and potential alternatives.

Neither the informed consent nor the agreement to participate can be given verbally.

62.

All the following are typically found in a health history questionnaire EXCEPT:

  • Individual goals

  • Medications

  • Surgical history

  • Present health behaviors

Correct answer: Individual goals

In order to establish a client's medical/health risks for participation in a workout program, it is necessary to use a health history questionnaire (HHQ). In general, the HHQ should assess the following:

  • Family history of CMR disease
  • Personal history of various diseases and illnesses
  • Surgical history
  • Past and present health behaviors/habits
  • Current use of various drugs/medications
  • Specific history of various signs and symptoms suggestive of CMR diseases

63.

A client moves a 50-pound barbell 1.5 feet during each repetition. How much work has he performed if he does 4 sets of 6 repetitions?

  • 1,800 lb.ft.

  • 75 lb.ft.

  • 450 lb.ft.

  • 1,500 lb.ft.

Correct answer: 1,800 lb.ft.

Mechanical work is the magnitude of a force that creates a change in position, and the linear displacement (straight-line distance) defines the change in position. Total mechanical work can be calculated with the formula W = (F x d) x r x s.

  • F = force
  • d = distance
  • r = repetitions
  • s = sets

In this example, W = (50 lb. x 1.5 ft). x 6 x 4 = 1,800 lb.ft.

64.

At which diastolic blood pressure reading would you note that your client is pre-hypertensive?

  • Between 80 and 89 mmHg

  • Less than 80 mmHg

  • Greater than 120 mmHg

  • Higher than 90 mmHg

Correct answer: Between 80 and 89 mmHg

Blood pressure is the amount of pressure against the walls of blood vessels as blood circulates throughout the body.

  • A normal diastolic blood pressure level is under 80 mmHg.
  • A pre-hypertensive blood pressure level is between 80 and 89 mmHg.
  • A hypertensive blood pressure level is 90 mmHg or higher.

Diastolic blood pressure is the minimum pressure in the arteries when the ventricles relax.

65.

You are considering starting a business as an S-corporation and five out of ten of your potential investors are from Europe. You consult with a lawyer who is MOST likely to give what piece of advice? 

  • Not to pursue an S-corporation because all of the investors must be from the U.S.

  • Continue with filing for an S-corporation because it allows foreign investors

  • Not to pursue an S-corporation because you have more than two investors

  • Continue filing for an S-corporation because it can allow multiple forms of stock options

Correct answer: Not to pursue an S-corporation because all of the investors must be from the U.S.

In an S-Corporation, all of the investors must be from the U.S.

There is a limit of 100 total investors for an S-corporation. An S-corp must also only issue one form of stock.

66.

All the following foods or drugs should be avoided leading up to a cardiovascular fitness assessment EXCEPT:

  • Vitamin C

  • Caffeine

  • Nicotine

  • Alcohol

Correct answer: Vitamin C

For all clients who undergo Cardiorespiratory Fitness (CRF) assessments, it is important to standardize pre-testing conditions. Standardization can also increase the accuracy of prediction of CRF as well as help with ensuring client safety. General instructions include the following:

  • Abstain from caffeine ingestion for at least 12 hours
  • Abstain from nicotine use for at least 3 hours
  • Abstain from alcohol use for at least 24 hours

67.

Which of the following is the BEST example of gross negligence as a trainer at a commercial gym?

  • The trainer chooses to use a pulley machine with a broken cable

  • The trainer fails to spot a client performing a barbell squat

  • The trainer fails to attach clasps to the end of a barbell during a bench press

  • The trainer demonstrates poor form for a squat, resulting in injury

Correct answer: The trainer chooses to use a pulley machine with a broken cable

Gross negligence occurs when a trainer deliberately acts in a manner beyond their scope of employment or fails to meet the accepted standard of care. Using a machine without the proper safety equipment should not occur during the normal course of a trainer's activities and is subject to gross negligence.

Spotting, using safety clips, and exercise demonstrations are considered part of the normal activities conducted during personal training.

68.

When a squat movement pattern is quadriceps focused, which of the following has a greater load placed upon it?

  • Anterior cruciate ligament

  • Adductor longus

  • Biceps femoris

  • Semimembranosus

Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

When a squat movement pattern is quadriceps focused, the gluteus maximus does not eccentrically load and cannot generate much force during the upward phase. As a result, the anterior cruciate ligament has a greater load placed upon it.

69.

Dyspnea is BEST defined as which of the following?

  • Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing

  • Knifelike, sharp jabs aggravated by respiration

  • Unpleasant awareness of the forceful or rapid beating of the heart

  • The pain that occurs in a muscle with an inadequate blood supply

Correct answer: Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing

Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing is one of the telltale symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease and this is known as dyspnea. It happens during strenuous exertion in healthy, well-trained individuals, as well as during moderate exertion in healthy, untrained persons. It should be considered abnormal when it occurs at a level of exertion that is not expected to lead to this symptom.

70.

Which of the following types of muscle fibers contains a high number of glycolytic enzymes?

  • Type IIx

  • Type IIa

  • Type I

  • Type IIb

Correct answer: Type IIx

In general, most people know about the two most common types of muscle fibers: slow-twitch and fast-twitch.

However, fast-twitch fibers are further broken down into two sub-types:

  • Type IIx: These are the most powerful fibers, used for explosive movements like sprinting, jumping, and weight lifting. While these fibers can generate a tremendous amount of force very quickly, they also burn out within a few seconds.
  • Type IIa: These fibers are slightly less powerful than Type IIx but still provide a lot of power in short bursts, such as during an interval training workout. You can think of these fibers as somewhere between Type I (slow-twitch) and Type IIx.

One defining feature of Type IIx fibers is the high number of glycolytic enzymes.

71.

Which of the following assessments is contraindicated for a previously sedentary client?

  • VT2 test

  • Step test

  • Swim test

  • Talk test

Correct answer: VT2 test

Some—but not all—ventilatory threshold tests are contraindicated for the following populations: 

  • Unconditioned beginners
  • Obese clients
  • Individuals with symptoms of heart disease
  • Those with known heart disease or risk factors for heart disease

A more appropriate test for an unconditioned beginner would be the talk test or a swim test, since the latter allows the client to be buoyant.

One ventilatory threshold test that might be appropriate for a sedentary client is a low-to-moderate intensity talk test.

When choosing which assessments to perform, a personal trainer must consider a client's needs, goals, and abilities. Other considerations include the personal trainer's training and experience, as well as the setting and available equipment.

72.

Which of the following is NOT a legal requirement for personal trainers in order to avoid litigation?

  • Providing medical diagnoses

  • Maintaining liability insurance 

  • Obtaining CPR and AED certification 

  • Following a code of ethics

Correct answer: Providing medical diagnoses

Providing medical diagnoses is outside of the scope of practice of a personal trainer and should be reserved for licensed medical professionals only. 

Maintaining liability insurance and CPR/AED certification, and following a code of ethics are all necessary in order to protect the trainer and their past, present, and future clients. 

73.

The wood chop, butt kicks, and pendulum leg swings are all classified as which type of warm-up activity?

  • Dynamic stretches

  • Static stretches

  • PNF stretches

  • Ballistic stretches

Correct answer: Dynamic stretches

Stretching that incorporates movement along with muscle tension development is called dynamic stretching. The goal is to move the specific joint in a controlled manner within a normal range of motion in order to reduce the risk of injury. Examples of dynamic stretches include pendulum leg swings, butt kicks, and the wood chop.

74.

You are working with a client who plays recreational baseball. He is a pitcher and is complaining of acute shoulder pain with throwing. His physical therapist diagnosed him with impingement syndrome. It is his first week of his new rehab program.

Which of the following exercise choices would be BEST to integrate into his fitness routine?

  • Plank shoulder tap

  • Seated shoulder press

  • Dumbell chest press

  • Upright rows

Correct answer: Plank shoulder tap

The exercise program should emphasize strength and posture that opens up the subacromial space. This can be achieved through stretching of the anterior chest, scapular strengthening to improve shoulder joint positioning with activity, and rotator cuff stabilization. Exercises should target muscles such as the lower trapezius, rhomboid, and serratus anterior. This includes exercises such as closed-chain weight-bearing exercises like a plank shoulder tap. 

During this rehab period, overhead lifting activities should be avoided in order not to aggravate the shoulder area. 

Strengthening the anterior shoulder in exercises such as a chest press is towards the latter end of the rehab period after scapular and rotator cuff stability are achieved. 

Upright rows work the upper trap and shoulder muscles. This exercise actually puts the shoulder in an anterior position and can further aggravate symptoms. A seated row would be a more appropriate choice.

75.

To avoid an injury with free weights, what should a personal trainer constantly be wary of?

  • Fatigue

  • Number of repetitions

  • Load

  • Personal bests

Correct answer: Fatigue

To avoid client injury, a personal trainer must have open communication with the client to provide feedback. Just as important is listening when the client communicates that they are reaching fatigue. Another way that a personal trainer can ensure client safety is to educate the client about appropriate progression and not doing too much too soon.

76.

Which set of components should a health history evaluation include?

  • Medical history, medications, and exercise history

  • Family history, medications, and nutrition

  • Medical history, medications, and sleep patterns

  • Food log, medications, and sleep patterns

Correct answer: Medical history, medications, and exercise history

While there is no standard health history form, there are important pieces of information that a personal trainer should always gather from a new client, including the following:

  • Medical and surgical history
  • Medications
  • Exercise history
  • Past and present behaviors and habits

By obtaining this information, a personal trainer can gain a well-rounded view of the new client's health.

77.

Which of the following cervical muscles can also directly cause movement in the scapulothoracic joint?

  • Levator scapulae

  • Sternocleidomastoid

  • Anterior scalene

  • Longus capitis

Correct answer: Levator scapulae

The levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, anterior scalene, and longus capitus are all cervical muscles that exist in pairs, with one of each on both sides of the neck.

The levator scapulae is considered a lateral cervical muscle, which creates lateral cervical flexion and rotation with contraction on one side (unilateral). This muscle also plays a role in creating shoulder (scapulothoracic) movement and is therefore also considered a posterior shoulder girdle muscle. The levator scapula attaches to the four upper cervical vertebrae and to the scapulae.

The sternocleidomastoid, anterior scalene, and longus capitus are all classified as anterior cervical muscles. These muscles create neck flexion when they contract bilaterally, and can also contribute to lateral cervical flexion and cervical rotation if just one side contracts.

78.

The push-up is a measure of muscular endurance. In which plane of motion does the torso move when performing a push-up?

  • Sagittal plane

  • Transverse plane

  • Frontal plane

  • Anterior plane

Correct answer: Sagittal plane

There are three planes of motion that each divide the body into two sections when viewed in an anatomical position:

  • The sagittal plane creates a left side and right side — This is where forward and backward movements occur.
  • The frontal plane creates anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections — This is where side-to-side movements occur.
  • The transverse plane creates superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections — This is where rotational movements occur.

Movement in these planes occurs along the division line. Therefore, movement in the sagittal plane involves anterior-posterior movement patterns. The torso moves in the sagittal plane when performing a push-up.

An example of a movement in the frontal plane would be a lateral lunge, and a transverse plane movement would involve a rotational motion such as a Russian twist.

79.

All the following statements are true regarding industry guidelines relating to matters of facility and equipment setup, inspection, maintenance, repair, and signage EXCEPT:

  • The guidelines are legal requirements

  • The guidelines encourage proactive, safe behavior

  • The guidelines minimize risk

  • The guidelines prevent injuries

Correct answer: The guidelines are legal requirements

According to insurance providers, the second leading reason for claims against personal trainers is injury resulting from the misuse of equipment. ACE and other professional organizations offer industry guidelines regarding matters of facility and equipment setup, inspection, maintenance, repair, and signage.

It is true that these standards and guidelines do not have the force of law behind them; however, they can be used as evidence, for example, to inform the scope of the personal trainer's duties under the applicable standard of care. Keep in mind that the law does not envision that accidents never happen. Instead, these standards are in place to eliminate preventable injuries.

80.

If a client wants to improve their muscular endurance, which of the following assessments should a personal trainer administer?

  • Push-up test

  • 1-RM bench press

  • Partial curl-up test

  • Sit-and-reach

Correct answer: Push-up test

The ability to produce force repeatedly over time is known as muscular endurance. A common assessment for muscular endurance is the push-up test. Specifically, the push-up test measures upper body endurance of the pectoralis muscle, triceps, and anterior deltoids.

While the push-up test is joint- and muscle-group-specific, it can give an indication of whole-body muscular endurance. Assessing a client at the beginning of their training program and then again in the future helps them see their improvements over time.

The 1-RM bench press test specifically measures maximum force production for a single repetition. 

The partial curl-up test focuses on abdominal strength.

The sit-and-reach test is a common measurement of flexibility, specifically in the lower back.

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