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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-CPT Exam Questions

Page 3 of 50

41.

Which of the following strategies is best for including all desired micronutrients in one's diet?

  • Eat a wide variety of foods, especially fruits and vegetables

  • Consume solely chicken and beef

  • Take a fiber supplement with meals

  • Track your protein, fat, and carbohydrate intake

Correct answer: Eat a wide variety of foods, especially fruits and vegetables

Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are known as macronutrients. Vitamins and minerals are micronutrients. Clients should not be taught to think of any individual nutrient as more important than any other nutrient. The focus should be on nutrient balance, which is critical to good health and performance. The best strategy for maintaining a nutrient balance is to eat a wide variety of foods, regularly consume fresh fruits and vegetables, and avoid a monotonous intake of the same few foods day after day.

By eating a varied diet consisting of lots of fruits and vegetables, clients are more likely to meet their daily micronutrient requirements. However, they may be lacking in certain macronutrients, as fruits and vegetables often don't contain high levels of fat and protein.

Consuming solely meat may lead to micronutrient deficiencies. Taking a fiber supplement would do little to increase micronutrient intake. Tracking fat, protein, and carb intake would say nothing of the micronutrient content in a meal.

42.

Which of the following nutrition guidelines applies only to those looking to gain weight?

  • Achieve a positive caloric balance

  • Eat frequent meals

  • Increase protein intake

  • Take advantage of the post-workout window of opportunity

Correct answer: Achieve a positive caloric balance

Achieving a positive caloric balance is a nutrition guideline to follow for those looking to increase weight. Those attempting to gain lean muscle mass, or looking to increase their BMI so that they fall within a healthy range, should follow the same guidelines as those looking to improve health, performance, or fat loss. For example, the individual might be eating slightly more than usual (300 to 400 extra calories), but they should be nutrient-dense calories.

Furthermore, no matter the goal in mind, an individual should strive to eat smaller, more frequent meals in order to experience lower body fat, better glucose tolerance, and maintenance of metabolic rate. Every individual should also be mindful of proper carbohydrate refueling after exercise, as well as receiving an adequate amount of protein.

43.

When performing the push-up test, how far does the individual have to lower themselves to the ground for the down position?

  • Until their chin touches the ground

  • Until their chest touches the ground

  • Until their stomach touches the ground

  • Until their nose touches the ground

Correct answer: Until their chin touches the ground

The ability to produce force repeatedly over time is known as muscular endurance. A common assessment for muscular endurance is the push-up test. While the push-up test is joint- and muscle-group-specific, it can give an indication of whole-body muscular endurance. When performing a push-up, the individual must raise the body by straightening the elbows and then return to the down position until the chin touches the mat. The stomach should not touch the mat.

Touching the chest or stomach to the ground could make the test easier and less applicable when one considers different body types, such as those who are obese. Touching the nose to the ground could force the person to assume a worse posture during the movement.

44.

For which of the following populations is neuromotor training specifically recommended?

  • Older adults

  • Youth populations

  • Pregnant women

  • Novice exercisers

Correct answer: Older adults

Neuromotor training incorporates exercises that focus on balance, coordination, gait, agility, and enhanced proprioception. Neuromotor training is prescribed as part of a comprehensive exercise program, especially for older adults who are at an increased risk of falling.

Younger clients are unlikely to benefit as much from neuromotor training, as they are usually developing improved coordination and timing with every passing day. Pregnant women may benefit from neuromotor training; however, pregnancy is a temporary state, and their time may be better spent on other areas of fitness. Novice exercisers benefit more from focusing on other areas of fitness than neuromotor training specifically. 

45.

Which of the following individuals would benefit most from using the RPE scale rather than HR?

  • An individual taking beta-blockers

  • An individual who has anxiety

  • An individual who is new to exercise

  • An individual who doesn't have much time

Correct answer: An individual taking beta-blockers

It is one of many tasks of the personal trainer to design an individualized cardiorespiratory and/or aerobic interval program for each client. During the performance of these programs, the personal trainer should monitor a client's heart rate (HR) and rating of perceived exertion (RPE) throughout the various stages of the entire workout. RPE must be used for any client taking medication that affects HR, such as beta-blockers, during exercise. RPE should also be used for pregnant clients, since HR is more variable during pregnancy.

46.

Performing self-myofascial release (SMR) and/or stretching exercises that target the hamstrings and abdominals might be an appropriate recommendation for an individual with which of the following alignment issues?

  • Posterior pelvic tilt

  • Anterior pelvic tilt

  • Excessive thoracic kyphosis

  • Excessive lumbar lordosis

Correct answer: Posterior pelvic tilt

Alignment issues such as anterior and posterior pelvic tilt can have a variety of causes but are often associated with weak and inhibited areas, as well as other associated hypertonic areas. Flexibility exercises (stretching) and self-myofascial release (SMR) can be used effectively to target areas that are hypertonic.

An individual who demonstrates a posterior pelvic tilt should target their SMR and stretching of the hamstrings and abdominals, which are often hypertonic in this position.

An individual with anterior pelvic tilt (which also includes excessive lumbar lordosis) would benefit from targeting the quadratus lumborum, quadriceps, and iliopsoas. Someone with excessive thoracic kyphosis should target the pectoralis major and minor, latissimus dorsi and the abdominals.

47.

Which of the following is an appropriate rest period for a client performing fewer repetitions of a heavy load during the bench press exercise?

  • 2-3 minutes

  • 90 seconds

  • 60 seconds

  • 3-4 minutes

Correct answer: 2-3 minutes

A rest period of three minutes allows the energy systems needed to perform the set to recover and for the neural system to return to a rested state. For exercise being performed with maximal strength, an extended rest period of a minimum of two to three minutes is recommended.

48.

Ankle edema is suggestive of all of the following except:

  • Ischemia

  • Heart failure

  • Blood clot

  • Insufficiency of the veins

Correct answer: Ischemia

An individual might be suffering from a cardiovascular, metabolic, and/or renal (CMR) disease if they are showing signs and symptoms including dyspnea, syncope, orthopnea, and ankle edema.

Specifically, ankle edema is swelling that is not due to injury. Instead, it is suggestive of heart failure, a blood clot, insufficiency of the veins, or a lymph system blockage.

On the other hand, ischemia is the lack of oxygenated blood flow to the tissue, such as the heart, and is usually associated with pain in the chest, neck, and jaw.

49.

What are the two most common tests used to measure agility?

  • T-test and pro-agility test

  • Pro-agility test and 40-yard dash

  • T-test and vertical jump test

  • T-test and 40-yard dash

Correct answer: T-test and pro-agility test

Speed and agility are essential to athletic performance. Agility requires mobility, coordination, balance, power, stabilization, proper technique, strength, flexibility, and body control. Specific agility drills involve multiple movements, including linear springs, backpedaling, side shuffling, drop-stepping, cariocas, cutting, pivoting, jumps, and cross-overs. Several tests can be used to assess agility, but two of the most common assessments are the T-test, which uses cone sprints, and the pro-agility test, which is a 20-yard shuttle.

50.

Which of the following exercises are appropriate corrective exercises recommended for an individual with weakness in their gluteus maximus?

  • Glute bridges and bird-dog

  • Glute bridges and lateral band walks

  • Bird-dog and clam shells

  • Clam shells and lateral band walks

Correct answer: Glute bridges and bird-dog

Specific weaknesses in areas such as the gluteus maximum, gluteus medius or in core endurance can contribute to issues in posture, alignment, stability, and movement. Adding corrective movements to address these weaknesses can be beneficial.

A weakness in the gluteus maximus may be improved by included movements such as glute bridges and the bird-dog, which specifically target this muscle. Lateral band walks and clam shells target a different glute muscle, the gluteus medius.

51.

If a personal trainer claims to work with certain niche populations, which of the following will improve their standing in the field and ensure that they are up to date on current research?

  • Keeping written records of all certifications, continuing education, and work-related experience

  • Keeping written records of informed consent, work-related experience, and liability insurance

  • Keeping past clientele testimonials about their work

  • Offering special promotions to those populations

Correct answer: Keeping written records of all certifications, continuing education, and work-related experience

By being properly qualified for the job and all related tasks, a personal trainer can reduce the risk of injury to clients and the risk of potential liability. Therefore, it is critical that a personal trainer keeps a written record of all of the following:

  1. All certifications
  2. Continuing education
  3. Work-related experience

By doing so, they have evidence of sufficient preparation to work with special populations. 

52.

A 35-year-old male client has an estimated max heart rate of 185 bpm. His resting heart rate (HRrest) is 75 bpm. Use the Karvonen method to determine his target heart rate range for a prescribed exercise intensity of 50-60%.

  • 130-141 bpm

  • 92-111 bpm

  • 110-130 bpm

  • 141-156 bpm

Correct answer: 130-141 bpm

The calculation to determine this client's target exercise heart rate range is as follows:

Values: max heart rate (Max HR) = 185 bpm; Resting HR (HRrest) = 75 bpm

Determine heart rate reserve (HRR): Max HR - HRrest = 185-75 = 110

Determine lower end of target exercise HR: (50% x HRR) + HRrest = (.5x110) + 70 = 55+75 = 130 bpm

Determine upper end of target exercise HR: (60% x HRR) + HRrest = (.6x110) + 70 = 66+75 = 141 bpm

Target exercise heart rate (50-60%) = 130-141 bpm

53.

Which of the following is a function of protein?

  • Enzyme synthesis

  • Blood sugar regulation

  • Glycogen repletion

  • Thermic insulation

Correct answer: Enzyme synthesis

Protein is responsible for enzyme synthesis.

Carbohydrates are responsible for both blood sugar regulation and glycogen repletion. Fats are responsible for thermic insulation.

54.

There are four phases in a traditional linear periodization program. Which of the following includes the correct phases in the correct order?

  • Hypertrophy phase, strength and power phase, peaking phase, recovery phase

  • General fitness phase, hypertrophy phase, strength phase, recovery phase

  • Strength and power phase, recovery phase, peaking phase, hypertrophy phase

  • Strength phase, power phase, peaking phase, recovery phase

Correct answer: Hypertrophy phase, strength and power phase, peaking phase, recovery phase

The four phases of a linear periodization training model start the training program with higher volumes and lower intensities (hypertrophy phase), and gradually decrease the volume and increase intensity through both the strength and power phase and the peaking phase.

These first three phases are then followed by a recovery phase, which includes active rest and recovery methods to help prepare the individual to begin another training phase. This is a common periodization model used with athletes who are preparing for a competitive season or a competitive event but can also be used with the general population.

55.

Which of the following skinfold measurements involves taking a diagonal fold in order to obtain an accurate reading?

  • Suprailiac

  • Thigh

  • Triceps

  • Abdominal

Correct answer: Suprailiac 

If the personal trainer is adequately trained in the use of skinfold calipers and the caliper is of high quality, skinfold measurements can be an accurate way to determine the percentage of body.

Calculating the sum of skinfolds can provide a client with valuable information on how their training program is affecting change in body composition. There are nine skinfold measurement sites:

  1. Abdominal
  2. Triceps
  3. Biceps
  4. Chest
  5. Medial calf
  6. Mid-axillary
  7. Subscapular
  8. Suprailiac
  9. Thigh

Vertical folds are used to measure the abdominal, triceps, biceps, medial calf, midaxillary, and thigh.

56.

Plantar fasciitis is characterized as what kind of injury?

  • Chronic inflammatory condition

  • Acute condition

  • Sprain

  • Impingement

Correct answer: Chronic inflammatory condition

Plantar fasciitis is typically associated with heel pain, where the fascia on the underside of the foot (plantar fascia) connects to the heel bone (calcaneus). This is a common condition that can have different causes. The fascia gets irritated (inflamed) when it's overloaded due to a circumstance such as flat feet or a tight Achilles tendon. Carrying too much bodyweight (obesity) can also overload the plantar fascia and lead to pain.

Treatment often requires physical therapy and involves stretching and strengthening the muscles of the calf. Medication and even surgery may be necessary in certain cases. As a personal trainer, if your client experiences symptoms of plantar fasciitis, they should be referred to a qualified medical professional for diagnosis and direction of treatment.

57.

All of the following are appropriate goals for a pregnant client except:

  • Increase cardiorespiratory fitness

  • Avoid excessive weight gain

  • Reduce the risk of gestational diabetes

  • Lower the incidence of low back pain

Correct answer: Increase cardiorespiratory fitness 

Current research suggests that, unless a specific obstetric or medical condition is present, the likelihood of adverse events or complications in the mother or fetus following acute exercise or training is minimal. The personal trainer should recognize that physical activity by people who are pregnant and those in the postpartum period presents numerous benefits and should be encouraged. Together with an individual's obstetric health care provider, the personal trainer can establish the following exercise program goals:

  • Avoid excessive weight gain
  • Reduce the risk of gestational diabetes
  • Lower the incidence of low back pain
  • Prevent excessive decreases in cardiorespiratory and muscular fitness

58.

Which of the following should occur earliest in a personal training session with mixed cardiorespiratory and resistance training components?

  • Cool-down phase

  • Core work for stability

  • Muscular strength component

  • Flexibility component

Correct answer: Cool-down phase

The cool-down phase should occur immediately following the conclusion of any cardiorespiratory work to facilitate the client's heart rate returning closer to resting levels.

This prepares the client to engage in traditional resistance training and muscular strength work. Both core work and flexibility training occur later than muscular strength work in a training session so as to not detract from the effectiveness of muscular strength work.

59.

Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation?

  • Exercising for weight loss and appearance

  • Exercising for enjoyment

  • Eating healthy to better understand appropriate portion sizes

  • Eating healthy to have more energy

Correct answer: Exercising for weight loss and appearance

A client will typically begin an exercise program with more extrinsic motivation than intrinsic motivation. When clients are extrinsically motivated, they participate in exercise to achieve an external outcome. This is usually an aesthetic goal, such as looking better in a bikini or fitting into clothing. 

When clients are intrinsically motivated, they participate in exercise to achieve internal outcomes, such as enjoyment of the activity itself or the feeling of accomplishment after the workout is completed. 

Strategies that shift an individual's motivation from extrinsic to intrinsic are important components to consider and implement when beginning a client's exercise program.

60.

When engaging in active listening, which of the following should a personal trainer avoid doing?

  • Sharing personal points of view

  • Conveying that they are trying to understand the client's point of view

  • Setting SMART goals alongside a client

  • Paraphrasing what has been communicated

Correct answer: Sharing personal points of view

Active listening is a communication form that utilizes both verbal and nonverbal skills that are necessary for communication in successful family, business, and therapeutic relationships. The four elements of active listening include:

  • Listening to spoken statements
  • Observing nonverbal cues
  • Understanding contextual anxiety
  • Identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities

Most importantly, active listening also involves clarifying, repeating, and summarizing what the client has said to ensure understanding. Personal trainers must understand clients' interpretations of their experiences, but it is important that the personal trainer does not impose personal points of view, experiences, or preconceived notions of the client's situation.

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