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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-CPT Exam Questions

Page 6 of 50

101.

Which of the following is contraindicated for clients with CVD who have been medically cleared for exercise?

  • Valsalva maneuver

  • Resistance training

  • RPE above 10 (on a 6-20 scale)

  • Exercise more than 3 days per week

Correct answer: Valsalva maneuver

With proper screening and medical clearance, individuals who have CVD can safely and successfully follow a resistance training program. All exercise requires monitoring of blood pressure and heart rate, and should begin at low intensities. Progress should be slow and gradual. The recommended RPE for these individuals is between 11-13 on the 6-20 scale. This corresponds to a range of fairly light to somewhat hard.

It is acceptable to follow an exercise program as many as 5-7 days per week, gradually progressing to this frequency over time while monitoring intensity and individual response.

The Valsalva maneuver involves increasing abdominal pressure by holding one's breath during exertion. This can cause a significant spike in blood pressure and is, therefore, contraindicated for individuals with CVD. Even for most apparently healthy individuals, the Valsalva maneuver should be largely avoided. The only time this maneuver is appropriate is during max lifts where the exerciser is moving a large percentage of their body weight.

102.

Which of the following methods can help a personal trainer appropriately respond to feedback provided by a client?

  • Having strong lines of communication

  • Keeping a written record of all workouts

  • Having weekly goal check-ins 

  • Being vigilant about maintaining confidentiality  

Correct answer: Having strong lines of communication

It is the personal trainer's responsibility to provide reasonable care to prevent injury, such as when a client is lifting weights. One reasonable step that a personal trainer can take to avoid a negligent incident is to foster open communication with each client and to encourage feedback, as well as listening when a client communicates they are reaching fatigue.

103.

Which factor of a client's footwear does not increase the risk of injury?

  • Thin soles

  • Excess wear

  • Poor fit

  • Unsuitability for given activity

Correct answer: Thin soles

Clients should have shoes that are comfortable, well-fitting, and suitable for the variety of activities scheduled for the exercise session. It's important that personal trainers check to make sure a client is wearing appropriate footwear in order to minimize risk. The following factors can increase the risk of injury:

  • Poorly fitting shoes
  • Shoes with excessive wear
  • Shoes that are not suitable for the chosen activity

104.

How is frequency measured in cardiorespiratory training programs?

  • Days

  • Weeks

  • Hours

  • Minutes

Correct answer: Days

Frequency is measured in days for cardiorespiratory fitness programs because it is a measure of how often discrete exercise sessions occur. It would not make sense to measure this via minutes, hours, or weeks.

105.

Which of the following most increases stability?

  • Core work

  • Cardiorespiratory training

  • Flexibility training

  • Arm work

Correct answer: Core work

Core work increases the body's ability to stabilize the torso while moving. A strong core can also prevent the torso from deviating from a stable position when forces are applied to it externally.

Cardiorespiratory training, flexibility training, and arm work do not relate to changes in stability.

106.

How many different rolling patterns are used to assess symmetry of the core stabilizing muscle recruitment as well as to identify common mobility and stability limitations?

  • 8

  • 6

  • 4

  • 10

Correct answer: 8

Performing a rolling assessment can be beneficial in identifying dysfunctional movement strategies as well as weaknesses or limitations in mobility, stability and core endurance. Rolling is performed in eight different patterns - using either the right or left arm or the right or left leg to lead the movement in order to roll from prone to supine (stomach to back) or vice versa (back to stomach).

The limitations discovered by evaluating the quality of an individual's rolling patterns can be addressed through specific corrective strategies that can be added to their training program.

107.

Catherine is a beginning client and has been resistance training for two months. She has no health concerns and is interested in training for general health. Which of the following is an appropriate resistance training program recommendation for her?

  • Full body workout 2-3 days per week with 48 hours between workouts

  • Full body workout 4-5 days per week with 24 hours between workouts

  • Split-body workout 3-4 days per week with 24 hours between workouts

  • Split body workout 4-5 days per week with 24 hours between workouts

Correct answer: Full body workout 2-3 days per week with 48 hours between workouts

Frequency of training is determined by an individual's training experience level as well as their training goals. Clients who are at an intermediate or advanced level and/or are training for specific goals, such as hypertrophy or sports performance, may train more frequently than those interested in training for general health.

For those who are training for general health, the ACSM recommends they follow a full-body resistance training program 2-3 days per week. It's important to allow 48 hours between resistance training sessions that target the same muscle group. Therefore, when following a full-body routine, there should be a minimum for 48 hours between workouts.

108.

All of the following professionals are people a personal trainer could refer a client to, except:

  • A supplement provider with whom the trainer has a financial interest

  • Athletic trainer

  • Massage therapist

  • Wellness coach

Correct answer: A supplement provider with whom the trainer has a financial interest

Ideally, personal trainers should become a part of a community network of mutually-referring health care professionals, including doctors, physical therapists, athletic trainers, exercise physiologists, massage therapists, and wellness coaches.

It would be unethical to refer a client to a company at which the trainer could make further profit from the client purchasing a product, unless the trainer discloses this information. 

109.

Emotional support can be defined as:

  • Encouragement or acceptance from others

  • Material aid given to provide an individual the opportunity to exercise

  • Advice or information given in regard to exercise

  • Providing an individual with constructive feedback and accepting their beliefs and values

Correct answer: Encouragement or acceptance from others

When there is an exchange of assistance between individuals or groups within a social network, this is known as social support. It is one of the most important and consistent predictors of exercise participation. There are four types of social support: 

  1. Emotional
  2. Tangible
  3. Informational
  4. Appraisal

Emotional support refers to encouragement or acceptance from others. This can include one's family, friends, spouse or significant other, and community.

110.

How long does a typical microcycle last?

  • 1 to 4 weeks

  • 4 to 6 weeks

  • 6 to 8 weeks

  • 2 to 3 weeks

Correct answer: 1 to 4 weeks

When designing workouts used in an exercise program, one concept to consider is periodization. It refers to precise variations in acute program variables (i.e., volume and intensity) during different phases of a resistance training program. 

The terms micro-, meso-, and macrocycle refer to the time course of the different phases of periodization. A microcycle is the smallest segment, which usually ranges from one to four weeks and is typically dedicated to one type of workout variable in that phase (i.e., high-volume, low-intensity power).

111.

All of the following challenge an individual's center of mass except:

  • Standing on a foam pad in a heel-to-toe stance

  • Turning in a circle

  • Leaning forward and backward

  • Crossover walking

Correct answer: Standing on a foam pad in a heel-to-toe stance

Neuromotor exercise includes balance, coordination, agility, and proprioceptive training. To improve the communication between feedback from the periphery (arms, legs) and interpretation by the central nervous system (brain, spinal cord), the trainer can use neuromotor-enhancing activities. The intensity of balance-related training can be determined by the personal trainer through three aspects:

  1. Base of support: narrowing the base of support will increase the challenge (e.g., heel-to-toe stand)
  2. Center of mass: displacing the center of mass increases difficulty (e.g., crossover walking)
  3. Peripheral cues: visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive pathways (e.g., standing on a foam pad in a heel-to-toe stance)

Standing on a foam pad in a heel-to-toe stance specifically challenges an individual's base of support, not their center of mass.

112.

What is classic periodization called?

  • Linear periodization

  • Nonlinear periodization

  • Undulating periodization

  • Reverse linear periodization

Correct answer: Linear periodization

Linear periodization is the classic model of periodization. It involves a progressive increase in intensity, with small variations in acute programming variables between weeks 1 and 4.

Nonlinear and undulating periodization have the same meaning. They involve varying intensity and/or volume in a nonlinear way throughout the course of a training program. Reverse linear periodization involves a progressive decrease in intensity, with small variations in acute programming variables between weeks 1 and 4. 

113.

Define, discover, dream, design, and deliver are the five phases of development under which coaching technique?

  • Appreciative inquiry

  • Empathy

  • Develop rapport

  • Motivational interviewing

Correct answer: Appreciative inquiry

There are various coaching techniques that can be utilized by a personal trainer to help clients implement positive behavior changes and achieve their goals. Some examples include active listening, demonstrating empathy, developing rapport and motivational interviewing.

Another example is known as appreciative inquiry (AI). AI includes five stages, each of which has a specific task and outcome. The five stages are:

  1. Define: define the change process to provide clarity and identify needs
  2. Discover: discovering positive aspects of a client's life and using them to help fuel future progress
  3. Dream: describing what the client believes they can accomplish
  4. Design: creating a plan to achieve the desired outcome
  5. Deliver: execution of the plan

114.

All of the following are causes of plantar fasciitis except:

  • Ankle sprains

  • Obesity

  • Tight Achilles tendon

  • Hyperpronation

Correct answer: Ankle sprains

Plantar fasciitis is a chronic inflammatory condition that causes pain at the calcaneal insertion of the plantar fascia. Plantar fasciitis can be caused by chronic pulling on the plantar fascia, a tight Achilles tendon, or hyperpronation. Other factors that over work the fascia, such as obesity, can also cause the condition.

115.

Which of the following is not appropriate for a personal trainer to do during an assessment?

  • Diagnose a medical condition

  • Screen for exercise limitations

  • Ask the patient about their family

  • Educate about health and fitness

Correct answer: Diagnose a medical condition

Personal trainers perform a wide range of activities, including the following:

  • Educating clients about health and fitness
  • Building rapport by talking to clients about their families, hobbies, etc.
  • Identifying potential risk factors
  • Screening for exercise limitations

With that said, diagnosing a medical condition falls outside of a trainer's scope of practice.

116.

Who is responsible for developing the popular three-site skinfold formula used to calculate body composition?

  • Jackson and Pollock

  • Liepert and Brown

  • Jackson and Brown

  • Pollock and Johnson

Correct answer: Jackson and Pollock

Several skinfold formulas for the prediction of percent body fat or body composition were developed by Jackson and Pollock. The three-site formula that they developed in 1980 provides percent-based body fat averages using the skinfold measurements for chest, abdomen, and thigh in men, and triceps, suprailiac, and thigh in women.

117.

Which type of goals can motivational interviewing help set?

  • Intrinsically motivated goals

  • Extrinsically motivated goals

  • Outcome goals

  • Health outcome goals

Correct answer: Intrinsically motivated goals

Using the information from the client intake form as a guide, it's recommended that the personal trainer asks additional questions about the client's goals to get more specific responses. It's also helpful to inquire about timelines that the client wants to set for goal achievement. Motivational interviewing techniques help to facilitate and set intrinsically motivated goals from a collaborative discussion.

118.

Which of the following is an example of motivational interviewing?

  • Exploring why the client is hesitant about committing to a long-term exercise program

  • Persuading the client to exercise more often by providing a structured cardiorespiratory plan

  • Explaining that continuing to avoid exercising regularly will put the client at greater risk for heart disease

  • Providing the client with evidence that lifting a certain way will increase their muscle size

Correct answer: Exploring why the client is hesitant about committing to a long-term exercise program

Exploring why the client is hesitant about committing to a long-term exercise program is an example of motivational interviewing. Motivational interviewing is a form of goal facilitation that focuses on client-directed conversations and change.

Motivational interviewing is different than giving advice, which constitutes the trainer just telling the client what to do. Persuading, explaining, or providing evidence to prove a statement are examples of unilaterally giving advice.

119.

The push-up is a measure of muscular endurance. In which plane of motion does the torso move when performing a push-up?

  • Sagittal plane

  • Transverse plane

  • Frontal plane

  • Anterior plane

Correct answer: Sagittal plane

There are three planes of motion that each divide the body into two sections when viewed in an anatomical position:

  • The sagittal plane creates a left side and right side — This is where forward and backward movements occur
  • The frontal plane creates anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections — This is where side-to-side movements occur
  • The transverse plane creates superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections — This is where rotational movements occur

Movement in these planes occurs along the division line. Therefore, movement in the sagittal plane involves anterior-posterior movement patterns. The torso moves in the sagittal plane when performing a push-up.

An example of a movement in the frontal plane would be a lateral lunge, and a transverse plane movement would involve a rotational motion such as a Russian twist.

120.

The goal of plyometric jumps is best described as:

  • Maximizing vertical or horizontal motion

  • Maximizing the repeated motion for a specific distance or pattern

  • Exaggerated bounds with excessive stride length

  • Accentuating the ECC component

Correct answer: Maximizing vertical or horizontal motion

Jumps-in-place, standing jumps, multiple hops/jumps bounding, box drills, depth jumps, and throws, performed preferably on grass or a similar surface, are examples of plyometric exercises. Here's the difference between common plyometric exercises:

  • Jumps: Maximizing vertical or horizontal motion
  • Hops: Maximizing the repeated motion for a specific distance or pattern
  • Bounds: Exaggerated drills with excessive stride length
  • Depth Jumps: Accentuating the ECC component by stepping off an elevated surface prior to performing an explosive jump
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