ACSM-CPT Exam Questions

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121.

Which of the following is not a realistic risk of beginning participation in a structured exercise program that could reduce a teenage client's quality of life?

  • Stunted growth

  • Increased injury risk

  • Family disapproval

  • Muscle soreness

Correct answer: Stunted growth

Family disapproval, increased injury risk, and muscle soreness can all reasonably occur when beginning a new structured exercise program. A client's subjective value systems will determine whether these are good things or bad things for them personally. If it is determined that they are bad, then these are realistic risks.

Regular exercise does not significantly increase the risk of stunting growth.

122.

Which of the following is considered a “subacute” change resulting from aerobic exercise?

  • Increased insulin sensitivity

  • Decreased blood pressure

  • Decreased resting heart rate

  • Weight loss

Correct answer: Increased insulin sensitivity 

Consistency in a daily routine is essential in diabetes care. If clients want to achieve the full benefits of aerobic exercise, there must be daily exercise activities. In clients with diabetes, some positive effects of aerobic exercise include better-controlled blood glucose and increased insulin sensitivity. These specific changes are known to be “subacute” changes, meaning that they are lost within a few days following the end of training.

123.

If a client is trying to stretch her triceps brachii, what position should she get in?

  • Place one elbow behind the head

  • Place palms of the hands on the back of the head

  • Place one arm across the chest

  • Cross the arms around the body

Correct answer: Place one elbow behind the head

There are many ways an individual can improve their flexibility and increase joint range of motion (ROM), and nearly all of them use some form of stretching. There are three types of stretching that are performed using active or passive techniques to improve flexibility: static, dynamic, and proprioceptive neural facilitation (PNF).

In order to have a client stretch their triceps brachii, the personal trainer should instruct the client to bring her left arm up, bending from the elbow, and drop the left hand behind her head. The client should try to reach over and touch her right shoulder with her left hand. Then, have the client bring her right hand to their her elbow and pull rightward to increase tension on their her arm.

124.

Which of the following is an example of a breakdown set?

  • Finishing all reps, then drastically reducing load and proceeding to perform more reps without rest

  • Finishing all reps, then minimally reducing load and proceeding to perform more reps without rest

  • Finishing all reps, then minimally reducing load and proceeding to perform more reps with moderate rest

  • Finishing all reps, then drastically reducing load and proceeding to perform more reps with moderate rest

Correct answer: Finishing all reps, then drastically reducing load and proceeding to perform more reps without rest

Breakdown sets are a means to extend the duration of a set while allowing for the accumulation of a high amount of metabolic stress. This metabolic stress is intended to facilitate muscle hypertrophy. In order to extend the set, load must be reduced. In order to increase metabolic stress, rest should be minimal.

125.

Which breathing technique should be used during flexibility training?

  • Purposeful breathing

  • Valsalva maneuver

  • Quiet breathing

  • Timed breathing

Correct answer: Purposeful breathing

Proper breathing techniques can provide assistance in relaxing the client. This usually allows the client to get into position more comfortably. Purposeful and controlled breathing that accompanies a relaxing exercise might help reduce stress levels and decrease voluntary muscle tension. 

On the other hand, a client should not perform a Valsalva maneuver, which is forced expiration against a closed glottis, during flexibility training.

Quiet breathing is natural, in and out, breaths employed while at rest; this is often inappropriate for supplying the stretched muscles with oxygen. Timed breathing may be appropriate for some flexibility goals, but for most people, purposeful breathing is a better option.

126.

Which best describes a concentric muscle action?

  • When a muscle produces sufficient force to overcome an external load and shorten the muscle

  • When a muscle produces insufficient force to overcome an external load and shorten the muscle

  • When a muscle produces sufficient force to overcome an external load and lengthen the muscle

  • When a muscle produces insufficient force to overcome an external load and shorten the muscle

Correct answer: When a muscle produces sufficient force to overcome an external load and shorten the muscle

Concentric muscle actions can be exemplified by thinking of the upward phase of a squat, the downward phase of a bench press, or the upward phase of a pull-up. They occur when your client is able to overcome the weight they are attempting to move.

A muscle shortens when it is producing enough force to overcome an external load. It is not possible for a muscle to shorten in this situation. A muscle lengthens when it is unable to produce enough force to overcome an external load. It is not possible for a muscle to lengthen in this situation.

127.

What oxygen uptake does 3 METs equal?

  • 10.5 mL per kilogram per minute

  • 3.5 mL per kilogram per minute

  • 17 mL per kilogram per minute

  • 22 mL per kilogram per minute

Correct answer: 10.5 mL per kilogram per minute

A MET is a metabolic equivalent. It is an index of energy expenditure, as measured by oxygen consumption relative to bodyweight.

A single MET represents energy expenditure at rest. So, 1 MET = an O2 consumption of 3.5 mL per kilogram per minute.

3 METs = 3.5 mL per kilogram per minute x 3. This equals 10.5 mL per kilogram per minute.

128.

During the Queen’s College Step Test, what is measured in order to assess cardiorespiratory fitness?

  • Recovery heart rate

  • Maximum heart rate

  • Average heart rate

  • Duration

Correct answer: Recovery heart rate

The Queens College Step Test has the client step up and down on a standardized step or bench for a total of three minutes at a set stepping cadence. For men, the step rate is set at a cadence of 24 steps per minute, and for women the step rate is set at a cadence of 22 steps per minute. 

After three minutes of stepping are completed, the client should stop and have their heart rate measured at the radial site within the first five seconds. The personal trainer should take the client's pulse for 15 seconds and then multiply that value by four to get beats per minute. In general, the lower the recovery heart rate, the more fit the individual.

129.

At which age will children start experiencing the benefit of improved bone health from engaging in regular physical activity?

  • 3 years old

  • 7 years old

  • 13 years old

  • 16 years old

Correct answer: 3 years old

Children will start to experience benefits in bone health through regular physical activity beginning at 3 years old. This underscores the importance of exercising regularly throughout the lifespan. Improving bone health at an early age can help mitigate the effects of bone loss later in life, which reduces and delays severe falling-related injuries during old age.

130.

Which type of insurance is most effective for personal trainers who are looking to decrease their risk of facing a client lawsuit and losing money?

  • Liability insurance

  • Worker's compensation insurance

  • Life insurance

  • Health insurance

Correct answer: Liability insurance

For the most protection, a personal trainer should carry professional liability insurance, even when working in a business as an employee, where they may be covered under the business owner's policy. Purchasing liability insurance enables the personal trainer to practice responsibly and feel confident that their business will not be destroyed by one situation. As a minimum, two million dollars per occurrence is recommended.

Worker's compensation insurance covers work-related injuries. Life insurance provides payment for spouses or surviving beneficiaries after a policy holder dies. Health insurance covers general medical issues. 

131.

Which of the following is considered best practice for clients who have recently had a hip fracture or hip replacement?

  • Continue flexibility training with restricted hip stretches

  • Continue flexibility training without modification

  • Continue flexibility training with exclusively PNF stretches

  • Continue flexibility training with exclusively static stretches

Correct answer: Continue flexibility training with restricted hip stretches

If a client has had a recent hip injury or fracture, they should restrict the type of hip stretches and movement that they perform in their flexibility training. The client should limit internal hip rotation, hip adduction, and hip flexion.

If flexibility training is continued in any form without limiting hip rotation, hip adduction, or hip flexion, the client will be likely to severely injure themselves. It is unsafe to stretch normally without specific limitations to hip stretching.

132.

At what age should children be physically and mentally mature enough to initiate a resistance training program?

  • 7 or 8 years old

  • 5 or 6 years old

  • 9 or 10 years old

  • 11 or 12 years old

Correct answer: 7 or 8 years old

Traditional resistance training activities are generally safe and appropriate for children, assuming the children receive proper instruction and supervision. 

By age 7 or 8, a child should be physically and mentally mature enough to begin a resistance-training program. The general resistance-training principles that have been detailed for adults can also apply to children. However, as mentioned above, it is critical that the trainer provides the necessary instruction on proper lifting technique and safety measures. All resistance-training sessions should be closely monitored.

Modalities can include the following:

  • Resistance machines
  • Free weights (preferably dumbbells due to the child's size)
  • Bands
  • Kettlebells
  • Medicine balls
  • Cable machines
  • Bodyweight activities

Unstructured play activities such as playing on playground equipment are a part of a child's daily physical activity, not resistance-specific exercise. The trainer should keep this in mind to avoid overtraining as children have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems.

133.

Your client includes static stretches at the end of their workout after the cool-down. If they hold their stretches for 20 seconds each, how many sets of each stretch should they perform in order to achieve the minimum recommended amount of stretch for each muscle group?

  • 3

  • 2

  • 4

  • 1

Correct answer: 3

It is recommended that the total accumulated time for static stretches should be 60 seconds. Stretches can be held anywhere from 10-30 seconds each, and repeated to accumulate 60 seconds. Therefore, if your client holds each stretch for 20 seconds, they need to perform each stretch 3 times in order to achieve the recommended time of 60 seconds.

134.

Which of the following assessments is contraindicated for a previously sedentary client?

  • 1.5-mile test

  • Step test

  • Astrand-Ryhming test

  • YMCA submaximal cycle test

Correct answer: 1.5-mile test

The 1.5-mile test is contraindicated for the following populations: 

  • Unconditioned beginners
  • Individuals with symptoms of heart disease
  • Those with known heart disease or risk factors for heart disease

A more appropriate test for an unconditioned beginner would be the Rockport 1-mile walk test. When choosing which assessments to perform, a personal trainer must consider a client's needs, goals, and abilities. Other considerations include the personal trainer's training and experience as well as the setting and available equipment.

135.

Which form of motivation is most autonomous?

  • Intrinsic

  • Extrinsic

  • Self-regulation

  • Social support

Correct answer: Intrinsic

Intrinsic motivation is more autonomous than extrinsic because intrinsic factors are ones that individuals have more direct control over.

Intrinsic motivation refers to the form of motivation driven by an internal desire and reward system, such as wanting to exercise because it feels good. Extrinsic motivation refers to the form of motivation driven by an external desire and reward system, such as wanting to exercise because it will impress a coworker.

Social support and self-regulation are not forms of motivation. Self-regulation refers to the strategies an individual implements for planning, organizing, and managing behaviors in order to adhere to the pursuit of a goal. Social support refers to the interpersonal factors that affect adherence to a goal.

136.

Your client informs you that they drank 16 oz of milk before their training session with you. Which of the following is true of the milk?

  • It is a low glycemic index food

  • It is a high glycemic index food

  • It is a medium glycemic index food

  • It is a very high glycemic index food

Correct answer: It is a low glycemic index food

Milk is considered to be a low glycemic index food, with a glycemic index under 60. Medium glycemic index foods have a glycemic index between 60 and 85. High glycemic index foods have a glycemic index above 85. The very high glycemic index category doesn't exist.

Glycemic index is a measure of how much foods impact blood sugar levels. Higher glycemic index foods are helpful when a lot of sugar is needed quickly. Lower glycemic index foods are healthier in general because they are protective against the onset of type II diabetes.

137.

Where should your weight be distributed in your feet during a back squat?

  • Equally distributed between the heel and forefoot

  • Toward the heels

  • On the forefoot

  • Starting on the forefoot and shifting to the heels at the bottom

Correct answer: Equally distributed between the heel and forefoot

Throughout the entire lift, your body weight should stay equally distributed between the heel and forefoot and should not shift forward or backward during the movement. Feet should be shoulder width apart, with the toes slightly turned out.

Bend the knees and hips while staying centered over the feet to lower into the squat position. Continue to descend until the thighs are parallel to the ground or you are unable to maintain good alignment and position. Push through both legs to return to a stand.

138.

Which of the following should increase with increasing exercise demands?

  • Systolic blood pressure

  • Diastolic blood pressure

  • Lactic acid buildup

  • VO2 max

Correct answer: Systolic blood pressure

Similar to heart rate, systolic blood pressure (SBP) increases in a linear fashion with exercise demands that progressively become more difficult. Maximal SBP values typically reach 190 to 220 mmHg; however, they should not exceed 250 mmHg. An SBP that fails to rise or that even falls, more than 10 mmHg, may signal a plateau or decrease in cardiac output.

139.

Richard is an advanced lifter and is performing back squats for 5 sets of 3, using over 85% of his 1RM. What is the recommended range of rest time between sets?

  • 2-5 minutes

  • 1-2 minutes

  • 30-90 seconds

  • 5-10 minutes

Correct answer: 2-5 minutes

The heavier the load, the greater the recommended rest time. Richard is an advanced lifter and is using heavy loads in his training program. This volume (5 sets of 3 reps) and intensity (over 85%) is indicative of a training program designed to build maximum strength. The rest times, therefore, should be longer, accounting for his training status and intensity.

For beginning and intermediate lifters, 2-3 minutes may be sufficient rest time between their heavier sets, while more advanced lifters may need closer to 4-5 minutes of rest.

Training programs designed for hypertrophy and muscular endurance typically use shorter rest times: generally from 30 seconds up to 2 minutes.

140.

At a minimum, how many minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise should a client perform, if they only performed moderate-intensity exercise?

  • 150 minutes

  • 75 minutes

  • 300 minutes

  • 60 minutes

Correct answer: 150 minutes

A client should perform at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per week, if this were their only form of exercise. This is ideally prescribed as 30-60 minutes of exercise at least three days per week.

Performing this volume of exercise significantly reduces the risk of dangerous cardiometabolic diseases, which can prolong a client's lifespan while increasing their quality of life.