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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-CPT Exam Questions

Page 8 of 50

141.

Which of the following motions does not occur at the glenohumeral joint?

  • Scapular elevation

  • Humeral abduction

  • Humeral flexion

  • Horizontal adduction of the humerus

Correct answer: Scapular elevation

In the human body, there are two synovial ball and socket joints that allow for movement in every plane of motion, one of which is the glenohumeral (GH) joint. The other ball and socket joint found in the body is the hip, also known as the femoroacetabular joint.

While movement in every plane occurs at the GH joint, scapular elevation does not. Instead, scapular elevation occurs in the shoulder girdle, or the scapulothoracic joint.

142.

Which of the following general gender differences might be a reason females generally have more flexibility (ROM) than males?

  • Females tend to have wider and shallower hips

  • Females tend to have larger joint spaces

  • Females have the protein elastin

  • Females tend to have a smaller bone structure

Correct answer: Females tend to have wider and shallower hips

The gender differences in general hip joint structure have the potential to lead to increased flexibility in females. Other contributing factors may include hormonal differences, the structure of the elbow and even a difference in body proportions and its effect on the center of gravity.

Elastin does contribute to flexibility and range of motion (ROM), but this protein is a building block of connective tissue in both men and women. There is a reduction of elastin that happens for both men and women with age, and this can affect (decrease) flexibility.

143.

All of the following are methods of progressive overload for resistance training except:

  • Increasing the rest periods

  • Increasing the resistance

  • Increasing the number of repetitions

  • Increasing the number of sets

Correct answer: Increasing the rest periods

A trainer can ensure progressive overload in resistance training in a number of ways including the following:

  • Increasing the amount of resistance lifted
  • Increasing the number of repetitions
  • Increasing the number of sets done per muscle group
  • Increasing the number of days per week the muscle groups are trained

However, by increasing the rest period, the muscle is allowed to recover for a longer period of time, and so this is considered a regression.

144.

All of the following are benefits of a body composition assessment except:

  • Assessing muscular strength and endurance

  • Identifying possible health risks

  • Estimating a healthy body weight

  • Monitoring progress

Correct answer: Assessing muscular strength and endurance

Muscular strength and endurance testing are separate components of a client assessment. They are related to body composition testing, but they are not a part of this component of health. 

Body composition is used to determine an individual's fat-free mass and fat mass. There is a strong correlation between obesity and an increased risk of chronic diseases, including the following:

  • Coronary artery disease
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Certain cancers
  • Hyperlipidemia

Body composition evaluations can also be done to establish a target, desirable, or optimal weight for an individual.

145.

Which stage of the Transtheoretical Model is characterized by a change being planned to begin within the next 30 days?

  • Preparation

  • Contemplation

  • Pre-contemplation

  • Action

Correct answer: Preparation

An integrative model used to assess and determine a client's degree of readiness to change is called the Transtheoretical Model (TTM). There are five stages: 

  1. Pre-contemplation: Not ready to exercise nor interested in pursuing exercise.
  2. Contemplation: Thinking about pursuing exercise (thinking about making a behavior change, usually within the next six months).
  3. Preparation: Doing something related to exercise, but not meeting the ACSM guidelines for physical activity (individual intends to take action, usually within the next month).
  4. Action: Meeting the ACSM guidelines for exercise for less than six months (engaging in behavior change for less than six months. This is the stage where people are most likely to drop out or give up).
  5. Maintenance: Meeting the ACSM guidelines for exercise for six months or more (the individual is working on maintaining healthy behaviors).

Preparation is the stage where a client is getting closer to putting the change into action. The individual has decided that it is worth making this change and will do so in the immediate future (next 30 days).

146.

Which of the following is not a component of a SMART goal?

  • Step-wise

  • Time-based

  • Attainable

  • Measureable

Correct answer: Step-wise

The best way for a personal trainer to help clients become intrinsically motivated to exercise and set intrinsically motivated goals that will work is to use the SMART goal philosophy. SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, and Timely. A SMART goal includes detailing specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and time-bound measures to ensure success. A client who is intrinsically motivated to exercise is more likely to demonstrate improvements to their self-worth and continue to participate in exercise long-term.

For example, a SMART goal would be to lose 10 pounds in two months by completing three days of cardiovascular training and two days of weight training per week.

147.

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to perform dynamic arm circles?

  • With fully extended arms, make small circles that gradually grow larger

  • With fully extended arms, make large circles that gradually grow smaller

  • With partially extended arms, make large circles that gradually grow smaller

  • With partially extended arms, make small circles that gradually grow larger

Correct answer: With fully extended arms, make small circles that gradually grow larger

Starting with smaller circles allows a client to build up to larger ones more readily as their acute ROM increases due to the earlier arm circles. Keeping the arms fully extended throughout the movement makes it easier to perform even larger arm circles than if they were less extended.

148.

What is the main muscle group targeted in a stretch performed by placing the hands behind the head and reaching the elbows backward?

  • Chest

  • Shoulders

  • Triceps

  • Neck flexors

Correct answer: Chest

The muscles of the chest actively move the shoulder through horizontal adduction. Therefore, the opposite movement, horizontal abduction, creates a stretch for the same muscles. Placing the hands behind the head and reaching the elbows back moves the shoulder through horizontal abduction and stretches the chest muscles.

One example of a shoulder stretch would be to pull the arm across the chest, into horizontal adduction. A tricep stretch involves reaching one arm behind the head and gently pulling on the elbow using the opposite hand. The neck flexors can be stretched by extending the neck to look up at the ceiling.

149.

What is the purpose of measuring blood pressure during a comprehensive fitness assessment?

  • To screen for hypertension or hypotension

  • To diagnose hypertension

  • To measure cardiorespiratory fitness

  • To diagnose cardiorespiratory disease

Correct answer: To screen for hypertension or hypotension

An integral component of a resting health-related physical fitness assessment is the measurement of blood pressure. BP measurement is a relatively simple technique and may be used in risk stratification. Several measurements must be obtained on separate days because hypertension cannot be diagnosed from a single measurement. 

While there are classifications for hypertension, the personal trainer is not making a clinical diagnosis; instead, they may refer the client to a health care professional for follow-up. 

150.

All of the following are appropriate cues except:

  • “Don't lock your knees.”

  • “Make sure to keep breathing.”

  • “Try to keep your gaze straight ahead.”

  • “Relax your shoulders.”

Correct answer: “Don't lock your knees.”

It is important as a personal trainer to call out all cues in a positive way. The constant use of the word “don't” sounds negative and can elicit feelings of discouragement. For example, “Make sure to always keep a slight bend in your knees” sounds better than “Don't lock your knees.”

151.

What is the recommended decrease in calories per day for a client looking to lose weight?

  • 300 to 400 kcal per day

  • 500 to 600 kcal per day

  • 100 to 200 kcal per day

  • 400 to 500 kcal per day

Correct answer: 300 to 400 kcal per day

The relationship between weight and caloric intake is relatively simple. If a person eats more calories (energy) than are burned or used up, the excess energy is stored and body weight will increase. This works in the other direction as well. Those looking to lose weight should deviate only slightly from an energy-balanced diet. The ACSM recommends that individuals decrease their daily caloric intake by 300 to 400 kcal per day to achieve safe and effective weight loss.

This reasonable caloric deficit will lead to fat loss while minimizing muscle loss. By restricting calories too much, such as by 500-600 or 400-500 calories per day, clients may feel deprived, may not be getting enough calories for their body processes, or may suffer from a number of unfortunate consequences. By restricting only 100-200 calories per day, clients are unlikely to lose weight very quickly, and they may become frustrated with the process. 

152.

Encouraging clients to plan for different weather conditions and helping them find a way to work out at home are two effective strategies a personal trainer could implement to help a client overcome what type of barrier?

  • Environmental

  • Social

  • Personal

  • External

Correct answer: Environmental

Common obstacles that prevent individuals from adhering to their exercise program or plan fall into three different categories:

  • Personal: Such as a lack of time, motivation, or energy, or fear of injury or other physical concerns
  • Social: Such as a lack of social support or cultural or gender expectations
  • Environmental: Such as safety, access to facilities, or the weather

A personal trainer can communicate with their clients to help create strategies to overcome the specific barriers each individual client may experience.

153.

Claims pertaining to violations of the scope of practice commonly occur for trainers when they give advice on which of the following topics?

  • Supplements for improving exercise performance and increasing weight loss

  • Specific exercise plans geared toward building muscle mass

  • Body fat reduction through a caloric restriction plan

  • Water intake to increase feelings of fullness after meals

Correct answer: Supplements for improving exercise performance and increasing weight loss

Claims related to violation of scope of practice occur most frequently in the area of supplements. This is because nutrition topics, such as supplements, usually fall outside of the personal trainer's scope of practice. 

Even registered dietitians cannot be completely sure about the ingredients in many supplements because supplements are not subject to government regulation. To proactively protect client safety and minimize the risk of professional liability, personal trainers should avoid recommending and/or selling supplements.

154.

What is the mediator for the relationship between normative beliefs and intention in the Theory of Planned Behavior?

  • Subjective norms

  • Behavior

  • Behavioral beliefs

  • Control beliefs

Correct answer: Subjective norms

Subjective norms mediate the relationship between normative beliefs and intention. A mediator is a factor or variable that explains how one variable influences another. Normative beliefs influence intention through subjective norms because subjective norms are a mediator in the relationship between normative beliefs and intention.

Normative beliefs act as a mediator for the relationship between behavioral beliefs and subjective norms. Normative beliefs are also a mediator for the relationship between control beliefs and subjective norms. Behavior is the outcome of the relationship between subjective norms and intention.

155.

Which of the following is not a contraindicated movement pattern for an individual with osteoporosis?

  • Excessive hip flexion

  • Forward bending

  • Supine twisting

  • Back extension

Correct answer: Excessive hip flexion

Excessive hip flexion is not included in the general contraindicated movement patterns for someone with osteoporosis. The movements to avoid include:

  • Forward bending
  • End range spinal flexion
  • Supine twisting
  • Spinal extension

Excessive hip adduction (crossing the midline of the body) should be avoided in individuals who have had a hip fracture or replacement.

156.

In the case of a negligence claim, all of the following are elements a plaintiff must prove in order to prevail in a lawsuit except:

  • Breach of contract

  • Damages

  • Breach of duty

  • Proximate cause

Correct answer: Breach of contract

A personal trainer should take basic precautions, such as developing an emergency action plan and an injury prevention plan, to ensure that every training setting is reasonably safe. If a negligence claim is filed, the four elements that a plaintiff must prove in order to prevail in a lawsuit are the following: 

  1. Duty
  2. Breach of duty
  3. Proximate cause
  4. Damages

A personal trainer can avoid litigation by reaching established standards for safe premises and service.

157.

Which of the following exercises takes place in the frontal plane?

  • Side lunges

  • Forward lunges

  • Front shoulder raises

  • Leg curls

Correct answer: Side lunges

A well-designed training program should incorporate movements in various planes. This can help with promoting quality, functional movement. Many of the traditional resistance training exercises move mostly along the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane is an imaginary line that splits the body into a left side and a right side. Movements that occur along the sagittal plane involve forward and backward motion (anterior/posterior). Front shoulder raises, leg curls, and forward lunges all take place in the sagittal plane.

Side lunges involve movement along the frontal plane, which is an imaginary line that separates the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections. Lateral movement patterns, including lateral raises, sidestepping, and shuffling take place in the frontal plane.

158.

Mark has completed his pre-participation screening and is scheduled for a fitness assessment in two weeks. He is planning to work with a personal trainer three days a week after completing his assessment. Mark is in which stage of change, based on the transtheoretical model (TTM)?

  • Preparation

  • Contemplation

  • Action

  • Precontemplation

Correct answer: Preparation

The transtheoretical model describes 5 stages of change. Each is based on an individual's degree of readiness to make a change. The 5 stages are:

  1. Precontemplation: During this stage, individuals are not interested in or looking to make a change, and typically don't realize that they need to make a change.
  2. Contemplation: In this stage, the individual has recognized the need for change and is beginning to think about eventually changing in the future.
  3. Preparation: Individuals in this stage are aware of the need to change and are taking the steps to create a concrete plan to implement changes.
  4. Action: Individuals move to the action phase when they have implemented their plan and are in the process of making changes, but these changes are still new (generally less than 6 months).
  5. Maintenance: An individual enters the maintenance stage when they consistently maintain these changes for 6 months or more.

Mark is in the preparation stage. He has created his plan for making positive changes—he has met with his personal trainer and completed the necessary paperwork and pre-participation screening but hasn't yet begun any training. He has a concrete plan to move forward and will be starting to make those changes very soon.

159.

Which of the following is most likely to result in a nutrient deficiency?

  • Consuming a low-calorie diet

  • Not consuming any dairy products

  • Not eating enough fruit

  • Following a vegetarian diet

Correct answer: Consuming a low-calorie diet

If a person takes in more energy than is used or burned by the body, the excess energy is stored and body weight will increase. On the other hand, if a person skips meals and consistently consumes too little energy, the rate at which they burn calories (i.e., metabolic rate) will decrease. And by not consuming enough calories, an individual runs the risk of having a nutrient deficiency.

160.

Which of the following is the most common form of dietary fats?

  • Triglycerides

  • Monoglycerides

  • Diglycerides

  • Glycerides

Correct answer: Triglycerides

Triglycerides are the most common form of dietary fats and oils.

Diglycerides and monoglycerides are less frequent but are still regularly found in the food supply. All three contribute nine calories per gram.

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