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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-EP Exam Questions

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21.

Which of the following best captures the recommended acute variables of an exercise program for adolescents?

  • 3 days per week / Intensity: Moderate / 2-3 sets of 8-15 reps, 60 minutes of activity / Bodyweight exercises

  • 3 days per week / Intensity: Moderate / 1 set of 8-12 reps, 45 minutes of activity / Bodyweight exercises

  • 2 days per week / Intensity: Moderate / 2-3 sets of 8-10 reps, 45 minutes of activity / Free weights

  • 3 days per week / Intensity: Moderate / 2-3 sets of 15-20 reps, 75 minutes of activity / Free weights and machines

Correct answer: 3 days per week / Intensity: Moderate / 2-3 sets of 8-15 reps, 60 minutes of activity / Bodyweight exercises

As children become adolescents, physical activity and fitness become more structured, but there should still be an emphasis on enjoyment. There is a distinct move from fun games to structured resistance-based training. When creating an exercise program for an adolescent, be sure to follow these acute variables:

  • Frequency: 3 days per week
  • Intensity: Moderate
  • Time: 2-3 sets of 8-15 reps, 60 minutes of activity
  • Type: Bodyweight exercises

It's essential to supervise and instruct during bodyweight exercises, especially fundamental exercises such as squats, push-ups, and pull-ups.

22.

A client is complaining of increased pain when performing weight-bearing activities. This is most likely a sign of which of the following?

  • Musculoskeletal injury

  • Delayed-onset muscle soreness

  • Neuromuscular inefficiency 

  • Normal reaction to weight-bearing activities

Correct answer: Musculoskeletal injury

If a client is complaining of increased pain when performing weight-bearing activities, this is most likely a sign of a musculoskeletal injury.

A properly designed cardiorespiratory fitness program is meant to minimize the risk of injury while maximizing the benefits associated with exercise and physical activity. With that said, you should be very familiar for signs and symptoms of common musculoskeletal injuries associated with cardiorespiratory exercise:

  • Exquisite tenderness
  • Pain that persists even when the body is at rest
  • Joint pain
  • Pain that does not go away after warming up
  • Swelling or discoloration
  • Increased pain with weight-bearing activities
  • Changes in normal bodily functions

23.

Discussing how physical activity makes the client feel is an example of which of the following strategies for enhancing self-efficacy?

  • Physiological feedback

  • Mastery experience

  • Verbal persuasion

  • Vicarious experiences

Correct answer: Physiological feedback

Self-efficacy is an important part of social cognitive theory, and it states that the more confident someone feels in their ability and skills to succeed, the more likely they are to engage in that behavior. 

As it relates to fitness, the degree of self-efficacy in the client can predict how likely they are to stay consistent with a program. This is why it is important for the fitness professional to create an environment that instills a sense of confidence while educating on specific skills.

Some physiological feedback strategies include the following:

  • Discuss how physical activity makes the client feel
  • Provide appropriate instruction and reassurance
  • Provide education about the possible discomfort of physical activity
  • Encourage using music, scenery, etc. to make the workout a pleasure

24.

Which of the following is not considered one of the traditional (originally described) flexibility training methods?

  • Dynamic flexibility training

  • Ballistic flexibility training

  • Static flexibility training

  • PNF flexibility training

Correct answer: Dynamic flexibility training

The traditional flexibility training modes include the following:

  • Static flexibility focuses on slow and constant motion that is held at the point of mild discomfort for about 10 to 30 seconds.
  • Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) involves contraction and release techniques.
  • Ballistic stretching focuses on rapid and bounce-like movements. The momentum from the bouncing helps to push the joint through the full range of motion.

Dynamic flexibility training is becoming more common, especially as a part of the warm-up routine, but it's not considered one of the traditional flexibility training modes. 

25.

Which of the following acute variables is ideal for activating lower threshold motor units?

  • 2-3 sets of 15-20 reps at 55-65% 1-RM

  • 2-3 sets of 10-12 reps at 65-75% 1-RM

  • 2-3 sets of 15-20 reps at 75-80% 1-RM

  • 2-3 sets of 15-20 reps at 85-90% 1-RM

Correct answer: 2-3 sets of 15-20 reps at 55-65% 1-RM

While it's not possible to change a type I muscle fiber to a type II muscle fiber, you can activate different types of muscle fibers by changing the acute variables of a workout. If your goal is to activate lower threshold motor units, you want to lift a lighter load that you can lift for no less than 15 repetitions.

26.

Which of the following best captures the acute variables of a resistance training program for a client with tendinopathies in the initial phase of healing?

  • Eccentric focused / 3-4 times per week / 3-4 sets / 6-15 reps

  • Full-body training / 1-2 times per week / 3-4 sets / 8-12 reps

  • Concentric focused / 3-4 times per week / 3-4 sets / 6-15 reps

  • Split training / 3-4 times per week / 3-4 sets / 8-12 reps

Correct answer: Eccentric focused / 3-4 times per week / 3-4 sets / 6-15 reps

Studies show that when a client has a tendinopathy, eccentric resistance exercise is a safe and effective way to decrease pain and return to normal activity. If you are designing a program for a client with a tendinopathy, it should take place three to four times per week. The client should perform three to four sets of 6 to 15 repetitions of eccentric-only exercises.

Once the pain has subsided and the inflammation is gone, you can gradually introduce concentric-focused movements and plyometrics, as tolerated.

27.

Which of the following is not typical of an independent contractor and employer relationship at a fitness facility?

  • Insurance benefits 

  • Must have a legally binding contract

  • Must provide their own insurance

  • Relationship is based on a time frame or project

Correct answer: Insurance benefits 

There are several factors that explicitly define the relationship of the employee and the independent contractor to the fitness business. As it relates to the independent contractor and employer relationship at a fitness facility, it would not be typical for an independent contractor to receive benefits such as insurance and vacation time. This is a feature of being an employee.

Independent contractors must provide their own insurance coverage. What's more, their relationship with an employer tends to last for a certain amount of time or project as specified by a contract.

28.

Which of the following is not a suggested strategy of applying the hedonic theory to physical activity?

  • Help clients identify negative outcomes from not exercising

  • Help clients identify positive outcomes from exercise 

  • Discuss ways to make exercise more enjoyable

  • Determine the time of day that works best for the client

Correct answer: Help clients identify negative outcomes from not exercising

Hedonic theory refers to the idea that individuals will become accustomed to a positive or negative stimulus. The theory details the ideas of "hedonic psychology," which discusses the perceived utility of a behavior or experience and an individual's response to that behavior.

In terms of fitness, that means feeling good in response to physical activity, and that feeling increases the likelihood of adherence. In other words, your client will want to maximize that good feeling associated with seeing the results of exercise and minimize the negative feeling associated with sedentary behavior. 

Here are some strategies for applying the hedonic theory to physical activity:

  • Work with clients to determine their personal preference regarding intensity level
  • Brainstorm with the client to create a list of new types of exercise and encourage the client to try these new exercises
  • Discuss ways to make exercise more enjoyable
  • Determine the time of day that works best for the client
  • Help clients identify positive outcomes from exercise

29.

Which of the following total cholesterol levels would place a client at risk for cardiovascular disease?

  • 240 mg/dL

  • 130 mg/dL

  • 185 mg/dL 

  • There is no total cholesterol level associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease 

Correct answer: 240 mg/dL

A total cholesterol level greater than 200 mg/dL puts a person at risk for developing cardiovascular disease (CVD). 

An HDL level lower than 40 mg/dL puts a client at increased risk for CVD. An LDL level higher than 130 mg/dL puts a client at increased risk for CVD. 

30.

Which of the following is not a major sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease?

  • Rapid, unexplained weight loss 

  • Heart murmurs 

  • Dyspnea 

  • Unusual fatigue

Correct answer: Rapid, unexplained weight loss

When conducting a preparticipation health screening, there are several outward signs or symptoms that suggest cardiovascular disease. The most common signs or symptoms include the following:

  • Pain or discomfort in the chest, neck, jaw, and/or arms
  • Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
  • Syncope (fainting)
  • Orthopenea (trouble breathing while lying down)
  • Ankle edema (swelling)
  • Palpitations (rapid heart beat)
  • Intermittent claudication (calf swelling)
  • Heart murmurs
  • Unusual fatigue

Rapid weight loss is a concerning sign, but it is not typically indicative of heart disease.

31.

A client wants to lose 15 pounds of body fat and increase their lean muscle mass. All the following are relevant goals except:

  • Purchasing clothes in a smaller size 

  • Visiting a registered dietitian to receive a custom meal planner

  • Signing up for training sessions three times per week

  • Reading more about weight loss and muscle building

Correct answer: Purchasing clothes in a smaller size 

Goals have an important and significant impact on a client's thoughts and behavioral choices. Helping your client to create and achieve new, healthy goals is an important part of the responsibility of an exercise physiologist. The acronym "S.M.A.R.T." can help you and your client create effective and realistic goals. S.M.A.R.T. stands for the following:

  • Specific: Identify the what, where, and how aspects of the goal
  • Measurable: Ensure the change and progress can be clearly noted
  • Attainable: Set up goals that are challenging but within reach
  • Relevant: Focus energy on goals that help achieve outcomes that are highly valued
  • Time-Bound: Explicitly state deadlines for goal completion

Those fitness goals that state the desired outcome, reducing the ambiguity of the task, are more likely to be accomplished within a realistic amount of time.

Purchasing smaller clothes is not a SMART goal and does not involve an exercise or dietary intervention.

32.

Which of the following clients is meeting the minimum physical activity guidelines for healthy individuals?

  • A client who takes 5 30-minute walks per week and lifts weights 2 times each week

  • A client who lifts weights 3 times per week and performs hill sprints for 20 minutes 2 times per week

  • A client who rides her bike 6 times per week for 30-45 minutes each time and participates in yoga once per week 

  • A client who kayaks 7 days a week for an hour each time 

Correct answer: A client who takes 5 30-minute walks per week and lifts weights 2 times each week

For most healthy individuals, the basic physical activity guidelines are that they should achieve 150 minutes of moderate intensity cardiovascular exercise (or 75 minutes of vigorous intensity, or a combination thereof) and 2 days per week of resistance training minimum. 

33.

During the Astrand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer test, you are working with a client who is male and unconditioned. What is the suggested formula to use?

  • 300 or 600 kg-m x min-1 (50 or 100 w)

  • 600 or 900 kg-m x min-1 (100 or 150 w)

  • 300 or 450 kg-m x min-1 (50 or 75 w)

  • 450 or 600 kg-m x min-1 (75 or 100 w)

Correct answer: 300 or 600 kg-m x min-1 (50 or 100 w)

CardioRespiratory Fitness (CRF) can be assessed through a variety of step tests, field tests, and submaximal VO2 prediction tests. The advantage of having a wide variety of available tests is that it allows you as the trainer to select an appropriate assessment that provides the desired physiological information while adhering to the needs of the client.

The Astrand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer test is one of the most recommended methods for fitness trainers to measure an adult client's cardiorespiratory fitness level. After you set the seat on the cycle ergometer to ACSM guidelines, you will select the appropriate work rate based on the sex and self-reported fitness level of the client:

  • Males, unconditioned: 300 or 600 kg-m x min-1 (50 or 100 w)
  • Males, conditioned: 600 or 900 kg-m x min-1 (100 or 150 w)
  • Females, unconditioned: 300 or 450 kg-m x min-1 (50 or 75 w)
  • Females, conditioned: 450 or 600 kg-m x min-1 (75 or 100 w)

While you should have access to these formulas during the assessment through the ACSM textbook, it's still useful to memorize them as you progress in your field. Here is the rest of the process for the Astrand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer test.

  1. After a proper warm-up, instruct your client to pedal at 50 rpm for six minutes at the work rate selected above.
  2. Assess heart rate two times during minute 5-6 and average the values.
  3. Estimate VO2 max from a nomogram.
  4. Because HR max decreases with age, the value from the monogram must be adjusted for age by multiplying VO2 max value by the following correction factors:

         Age / Correction Factor

         15 / 1.10

         25 / 1.00

         35 / 0.87

         40 / 0.83

         45 / 0.78

         50 / 0.75

         55 / 0.71

         60 / 0.68

         65 / 0.65

34.

Which of the following best describes a relative contraindication in a fitness setting?

  • An increase in the risk associated with physical activity

  • An action or activity that should not be performed for a given client under any circumstances 

  • An activity that a physician or other provider is unfamiliar with 

  • A decrease in the risk associated with preparticipation assessments

Correct answer: An increase in the risk associated with physical activity

A relative contraindication is an increase in the risk associated with exercise and physical activity. For example, if your client has unpredictable or uncontrollable chest pain (angina), then this could trigger ischemia and that could lead to a heart attack. This is compared to an absolute contraindication, which is an activity which should not be performed under any circumstances, as the risks outweigh any potential benefits. 

This is why fitness assessments are so important with new clients. The trainer has a responsibility of finding potential contraindications and suggesting the best work around.

35.

Buying a new set of workout clothes after a client has met their exercise goal is an example of which of the following processes of change?

  • Reinforcement management

  • Self-liberation

  • Counterconditioning 

  • Social liberation

Correct answer: Reinforcement management

Processes of change can be broken down into experiential processes and behavioral processes. Both are recommended to help increase self-efficacy and facilitate the required transition from precontemplation to action to maintenance.

Buying a new set of workout clothes after a client has met their exercise goal is an example of reinforcement management, which is focused on increasing rewards for exercise.

Other types of behavioral processes include the following:

  • Self-liberation
  • Helping relationships
  • Counterconditioning
  • Stimulus control

36.

A client who is new to exercise is interested in incorporating plyometric exercises into their routine. Which of the following acute variables best captures a beginner-level plyometric program?

  • 1-2 sets of 6-8 reps of low intensity drills mixed in with other resistance training exercises

  • 3-4 sets of 10-12 reps of high intensity drills mixed in with other resistance training exercises

  • 1-2 sets of 10-12 reps of low intensity drills as a standalone workout

  • 3-4 sets of 10-12 reps of low intensity drills as a standalone workout

Correct answer: 1-2 sets of 6-8 reps of low intensity drills mixed in with other resistance training exercises

Plyometric training can place a great deal of stress on muscles and connective tissues; therefore, it needs to be carefully prescribed and implemented. If you have a new client who wants to incorporate plyometric exercises into their workout, it's best to start them off with 1 or 2 sets of 6 to 8 reps of low intensity drills mixed in with other resistance training exercises. This is an important distinction, as plyometrics for beginners should not be a standalone workout.

37.

According to the transactional model of stress and coping, which two components largely account for the impact of a stressor?

  • Primary and secondary appraisal of the situation

  • Complexity and length of workout

  • Size of the stressor and consequences of not taking action

  • Punishments for not dealing with the stressor and rewards for dealing with the stressor

Correct answer: Primary and secondary appraisal of the situation

According to the transactional model of stress and coping, there are two major components that largely account for the impact of a stressor:

  1. Event threat (primary appraisal): Individuals gauge both their susceptibility and severity of the threat (e.g., Will I be in trouble if I don't do this workout?)
  2. Availability of resources (secondary appraisal): Individuals evaluate the available resources to control and cope with the stressor (e.g., Is there water nearby?)

38.

The American College of Sports Medicine has identified 35 fundamental standards relating to risk management and emergency procedures. As it pertains to facility offerings, which of the following is not one of those fundamental standards?

  • Thermal treatments, such as saunas, can be regulated by clients.

  • A monitoring system must be in place to verify the identity and presence of members.

  • Youth services or programs must be in compliance with state and local laws.

  • Childcare requires a signed waiver for emergency medical care.

Correct answer: Thermal treatments, such as saunas, can be regulated by clients.

The American College of Sports Medicine has identified 35 fundamental standards relating to risk management and emergency procedures. As an exercise physiologist, you will be training clients in a variety of locations, and therefore, it's important to take basic precautions that these fundamental standards lay out.

As it pertains to facility offerings, the following are required:

  • A monitoring system must be in place to verify the identity and presence of members.
  • Youth services or programs must be in compliance with state and local laws.
  • Childcare requires a signed waiver for emergency medical care.

Sauna, whirlpools, and steam rooms must be regulated at an appropriate temperature by the staff. These areas must also be well-maintained.

39.

Which of the following is not one of the three most common barriers to exercise?

  • Lack of experience

  • Lack of time

  • Lack of motivation

  • Lack of energy

Correct answer: Lack of experience

The three most common barriers to exercise are lack of time, lack of motivation, and lack of energy. These barriers tend to change over time. The first step to solving these barriers is by identifying them within your clients and understanding their impact on behavior. 

Barriers can be actual or perceived. For example, an actual barrier is not having a ride to the gym, whereas a perceived barrier is something that manifests within the client's perception, such as a lack of time.

40.

According to social cognitive theory, which of the following is an example of how a client's environment influences the client's behavior?

  • Proximity to the gym

  • Sedentary behavior of nextdoor neighbors 

  • Total experience of exercise

  • Ability to self-monitor

Correct answer: Proximity to the gym

Social Cognitive Theory (SCT), or social learning theory, is one of the most popular theoretical frameworks for understanding physical activity adoption. Social cognitive theory emphasizes reciprocal determinism, which is the interaction between individuals and their environments.

An example of how the environment can influence client behavior would be how close the client lives to the gym. The closer and more convenient, the more likely they are willing to make the effort to show up to exercise.

Using SCT for physical activity adoption can be individual-based self-regulation like self-monitoring, goal setting, and feedback, or it can be more complex, involving all three factors.

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