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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ASPPB EPPP Exam Questions

Page 10 of 53

181.

As part of a qualitative research project, Raul is hosting a focus group for people with HIV. The group has 12 participants, and Raul is recording the session for closer examination later. The participants are being asked open-ended questions, and Raul takes careful note not only of their responses but also of their nonverbal behaviors. 

What is the likely problem with this focus group?

  • The group has too many participants

  • Nonverbal behaviors are not part of a focus group

  • The questions should not be open-ended

Correct answer: The group has too many participants

A focus group can be a good way of collecting qualitative data that may not appear in more statistical research presentations. These sessions often have six to eight people; in a larger group, the data may be more difficult to collect, and there may be too much to observe. 

Observation of nonverbal behaviors is fair game in a focus group, as is recording the group for detailed analysis later. The questions are often open-ended in order to invite more information.

182.

Which of the following statements about memory is most accurate?

  • Semantic memory remains stable over a lifetime

  • Working memory is so short-term that it is subconscious

  • Generic memory and episodic memory are the same

  • Long-term memory consists solely of recognition memory

Correct answer: Semantic memory remains stable over a lifetime

Semantic memory, which includes recall of general facts and knowledge, tends to stay stable over the course of a lifetime. Another type of memory, called procedural memory, tends to remain stable as well.

Working memory is short-term, but it involves conscious awareness. Generic memory is memory of common action sequences, which is different from episodic memory, which refers to the ability to recall specific events. Long-term memory includes both recognition memory and recall memory. 

183.

Which term refers to the development and use of measures to assess an examinee's level of investment and effort during testing?

  • Symptom validity testing

  • Content validity

  • Concurrent validity

  • Internal consistency

Correct answer: Symptom validity testing

Symptom validity testing (SVT) refers to the development and use of measures to assess an examinee's level of investment and effort during testing. This has become an increasingly common topic of conversation among psychologists as forensic testing has become more popular.

Content validity indicates how well a test includes a range of information needed to test the construct that is being measured. Concurrent validity examines the correlation between a new measure and an established measure administered at the same time to assess the criterion of interest. Internal consistency is calculated to determine the consistency of items within the measure.

184.

Edward did not have a good first impression of his acquaintance Patricia. At first, he thought she seemed judgmental, dishonest, and loud. After knowing her a little better, he finds that she is recovering from an intensely abusive relationship with a substantial drug component and donates nearly all her free time to similar survivors; Edward now finds himself more attracted to her than he would have been if he had known the positive information from the start. 

Which of the following affiliative principles of attraction is at work here? 

  • Gain-loss theory

  • Social exchange theory

  • Equity theory

Correct answer: Gain-loss theory

In terms of attraction, gain-loss theory states that attraction is maximized when a first impression has been negative and then corrected by later positive information, as in this case. 

Social exchange theory and equity theory deal with relationships in terms of benefit and cost, with social exchange theory stating that attraction is maximized when perceived rewards are great and perceived costs are few. Equity theory suggests perceptions of equity are more important in magnitude than costs and rewards. 

185.

Language differences, distrust of research, and aversion to treatment are all barriers to which action?

  • Recruiting a representative sample

  • Gathering a convenience sample

  • Engaging in snowball sampling

  • Providing an effective intervention

Correct answer: Recruiting a representative sample

Language differences, distrust of research, and aversion to treatment are all barriers to gathering a representative sample of participants. More often, samples are nonrepresentative because of the difficulties associated with recruiting representative samples.

Language differences, distrust of research, and aversion to treatment might be barriers to providing effective interventions but are more of a problem when researchers are trying to recruit a representative sample. Language differences, distrust of research, and aversion to treatment are not barriers to gathering a convenience sample or engaging in snowball sampling; a convenience sample is collected due to a researcher's ease of access, and snowball sampling occurs when participants invite others to participate in the study.

186.

What is the name for the way people remember incomplete tasks better than those they have completed?

  • Zeigarnik effect

  • Folkman effect

  • Lazarus effect

  • Zajonc effect

Correct answer: Zeigarnik effect

The Zeigarnik effect is the name given to the tendency of people to remember incomplete tasks better than completed ones, which came from the study of affective memory.

The other choices are fabricated terms.

187.

A patient is taking a prescribed drug that acts as an agonist of the GABA receptors. What does the term "agonist" mean in this scenario? 

  • The drug mimics the activity of the GABA neurotransmitter

  • The drug reduces the effectiveness of the GABA neurotransmitter system

  • The drug blocks the effects of the GABA neurotransmitter

  • The drug inhibits the enzymes that break down the GABA neurotransmitter

Correct answer: The drug mimics the activity of the GABA neurotransmitter

An agonist drug is one that binds to a receptor site and mimics the activity of neurotransmitters, thereby causing the same effect as the neurotransmitter itself. A drug that acts as an agonist of the GABA receptors would bind to those receptors and mimic the activity of GABA. 

An inverse agonist binds to the same receptors as agonist drugs; however, the inverse agonist acts opposite to an agonist and actually decreases the effectiveness of the neurotransmitter system. An antagonist drug blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter system. Agonists do not inhibit the enzymes that break down the neurotransmitter; instead, agonists act by occupying the receptor and mimicking the effects of the neurotransmitter. 

188.

Which of the following is not a criticism of Piaget's cognitive developmental theory?

  • Cognitive development is more stage-like and discontinuous than Piaget thought

  • New skills in one area do not always translate to new skills in another area

  • The theory shows an over-reliance on the physical and motor skills of infants

  • Learning through perception and sensation is largely ignored

Correct answer: Cognitive development is more stage-like and discontinuous than Piaget thought

There are several popular criticisms of Piaget's cognitive developmental theory. However, Piaget did describe his theory in terms of abrupt stages rather than continuous development, so critics have not asserted that cognitive development is more stage-like and discontinuous than Piaget thought. If anything, current psychologists see growth and development as more gradual and continuous.

Piaget's theory of cognitive development is criticized because new skills in one area do not always translate to new skills in another area. Piaget relied heavily on infants' physical and motor skills to explain his ideas, and he tended to ignore that babies and children learn through perception and sensation.

189.

Which term refers to an individual's potential to learn a given task?

  • Aptitude

  • Ability

  • Achievement

  • Intelligence

Correct answer: Aptitude

Aptitude refers to an individual's potential to learn a given task and differs from ability, which refers to measures of knowledge acquired in specific settings, such as school. One example of an aptitude test is the Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery, which seeks to determine whether an individual is qualified to enroll in the armed services and addresses aptitude for specific jobs within the military.

Ability is an individual's capacity to perform a specific task and includes both aptitude and achievement. Achievement refers to the measures of knowledge acquired in specific settings. Intelligence is generally thought of as the ability to acquire knowledge and skills.

190.

Ronni is in the interview process to become the CEO of a new healthcare organization, and she knows she will likely be the company's choice. The position comes with a large pay increase and a positive lifestyle change, plus a large increase in responsibility and stress. As she moves closer to accepting the position, Ronni feels the weight of the impending stress more strongly. When she thinks about not taking the position, she thinks more of the pay and lifestyle changes in her favor. 

Which of the following types of intraindividual conflict is Ronni experiencing? 

  • Approach-avoidance conflict 

  • Avoidance-avoidance conflict 

  • Approach-approach conflict

Correct answer: Approach-avoidance conflict 

Lewin (1931) offers a theory of intraindividual conflict, which takes place inside a person in reaction to external pressures. In this case, Ronni seems to be experiencing approach-avoidance conflict (i.e., ambivalence arising from positive and negative aspects of a single choice). 

Avoidance-avoidance conflict would be the pressures arising from the choice between two undesirable alternatives, producing withdrawal and inaction. Approach-approach conflict arises from the choice between two attractive alternatives, producing comparatively little stress. 

191.

Which of the following is recognized as a universally accepted classification system?

  • ICD

  • DSM-5

  • DSM-IV

  • WHO

Correct answer: ICD

The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is recognized as the universally accepted classification system used by medical professionals. It is used for the classification of physical and mental disorders, as well as for purposes of reimbursement from health insurance companies.

The DSM-5 has criteria required to diagnose mental health disorders in children and adults. It is mostly used in the United States and is not universally accepted. The DSM-IV is a former version of the DSM-5 and is not used by clinicians any longer. The World Health Organization (WHO) is an agency of the United Nations concerned with issues of public health.

192.

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, by what age might an infant repeat an action because they like the sound it makes?

  • 8 months

  • 18 months

  • 12 months

  • 2 months

Correct answer: 8 months

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the secondary circular reaction substage of sensorimotor development lasts from the ages of 4 to 8 months. During this stage, the infant becomes more aware of the world and is able to repeat a simple action, such as shaking a rattle or making a noise, because they like the sound that it makes.

193.

According to Rothbart and Bates, extraversion/surgency, negative affectivity, and effortful control are three dimensions of what?

  • Temperament

  • Attachment

  • Moral development

  • Self-regulation

Correct answer: Temperament

Temperament is an individual's characteristic way of responding and has been the focus of much research over the past 50 years. Rothbart and Bates (2006) propose that temperament can be grouped into three dimensions: extraversion/surgency, negative affectivity, and effortful control or self-regulation. 

The concept of attachment, an emotional bond between a child and his primary caregivers, was developed by Bowlby (1969) and Ainsworth (1979); the three major types of attachment in their work are secure, avoidant, and ambivalent/resistant. Moral development (Kohlberg, 1976) can be broken into stages that define different forms of moral thinking by individuals. Self-regulation refers to a child's ability to regulate their stress levels and was not studied by Rothbart and Bates.

194.

According to Waugh and Norman (1965), which of the following is not a part of information processing?

  • If-then connections

  • Sensory memory

  • Short-term memory

  • Long-term memory

Correct answer: If-then connections

According to the work of Waugh and Norman (1965), information processing consists of three levels: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.

If-then connections do not refer to a part of information processing, according to Waugh and Norman.

195.

According to the DSM-5-TR, which of the following best describes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in men and women?

  • GAD is more commonly diagnosed in women than in men

  • GAD is more commonly diagnosed in men than in women

  • There is no difference in the prevalence of GAD between men and women

  • GAD affects four times as many women as men

Correct answer: GAD is more commonly diagnosed in women than in men

According to the DSM-5-TR, generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is twice as likely to be diagnosed in women than in men. GAD is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worrying for more than six months. It is best treated by cognitive behavioral therapy, and the prevalence of the diagnosis usually peaks in middle age and declines across the later years of life.

196.

All the following are General Principles in the APA's ethical code except:

  • Record keeping and fees

  • Integrity

  • Fidelity

  • Beneficence and nonmaleficence

Correct answer: Record keeping and fees

Record keeping and fees is one of the Ethical Standards, not one of the General Principles, listed in the APA's Code of Ethics. This section outlines how work with clients should be documented, how documentation should be disposed of, and other specific guidelines.

The General Principles of the APA include five sections: beneficence and nonmaleficence, fidelity and responsibility, integrity, justice, and respect for people's rights and dignity. These sections are general and aspirational, as opposed to the Ethical Standards.

197.

Tierra is an industrial psychologist helping with personnel selection. She has different measures in mind for potential applicants, such as physical fitness, mental acuity, and ethical problem-solving. If an applicant does not do particularly well in one area, they can make up for it in another; a total score will be generated and used to rank applicants. 

Which of the following personnel selection strategies does this resemble?

  • Multiple regression

  • Multiple hurdles

  • Multiple cutoff

Correct answer: Multiple regression

A multiple regression style of personnel section is much like the statistical analysis model of the same name. Rather than being one set of minimum standards that must be met or be ruled out (such as in multiple cutoff selection) or an increasingly difficult set of tasks or evaluations (such as in multiple hurdles selection), a multiple regression selection strategy collects and ranks measures from different areas in such a way that failure or low performance in one area does not indicate total failure. 

198.

Peter is a psychologist involved in a testing process in which subjects witness different stimuli to assess response time. One set of stimuli is pleasant, such as kittens; the other set is unpleasant, such as mangled corpses. Although the test has passed a review board and has been fully authorized by the sponsoring body, some participants are being deeply disturbed by the unpleasant stimuli. 

What ethical issue applies here?

  • Nonmaleficence

  • Justice 

  • Informed consent 

  • No ethical issue is present

Correct answer: Nonmaleficence 

Nonmaleficence refers to the necessity to do no harm. Although the review board, other clinicians, and the sponsoring body have all approved the experiment, the ethical burden remains the same. If there is harm being done to participants—something that may not have been known until the study began—the study will need to be evaluated and changed.

Justice does not apply as much here, as there is no indication that people are being treated unequally in the context of the experiment. Informed consent is not the primary issue here, since there is no information that suggests that informed consent wasn't obtained. Since Peter noticed that harm seemed to be occurring, an ethical issue is apparent. 

199.

Richard is a clinical psychologist who has taken a referral from a colleague for his services as a trauma specialist. Richard and the referring colleague have an arrangement in which they split fees based on the referral. 

According to the APA Code of Conduct, is this an ethical arrangement? 

  • No, referral-based compensation is unethical

  • Yes, referral-based compensation is ethical 

  • Yes, as long as the patient is informed 

Correct answer: No, referral-based compensation is unethical

According to the APA Code of Conduct, receiving compensation on a referral basis is unethical. However, a shared-fee system based on the services provided rather than the referral itself would be permissible. 

How much information the patient has about the arrangement is less important than the nature of the arrangement.

200.

What is one difference between a traditional X-ray and a CT scan?

  • An X-ray takes one picture at a time, whereas a CT scan can combine many different images into one

  • An X-ray takes much longer to perform than a CT scan

  • An X-ray shows differences in bone density quickly and easily, whereas a CT scan captures only the image and not the density

  • There are no differences, as a CT scan is a type of X-ray

Correct answer: An X-ray takes one picture at a time, whereas a CT scan can combine many different images into one

An X-ray takes one picture at a time, but a CT scan can combine many different images into one. CT scans can also show differences in the density of bone and tissue.

X-rays do not take more time to perform than a CT scan. 

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