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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

BCSP CSP Exam Questions

Page 7 of 50

121.

Which of the following is an accurate statement related to training in the Hazard Classification System (HCS) and the Globally Harmonized System (GHS)?

  • The HCS has more specific training requirements than the GHS

  • The GHS has more detailed training requirements than the HCS

  • The HCS includes detailed training requirements, and the GHS does not address training

  • Neither the HCS nor the GHS addresses training or implementation

Correct answer: The HCS has more specific training requirements than the GHS

The GHS is a general framework from which competent authorities may select the appropriate harmonized classification and communication elements. The HCS is more performance-oriented and aims to provide information to workers about the identities and hazards of chemicals. 

The other answer options are inaccurate statements relating to the training in HCS and GHS. 

122.

A fire hydrant has an orange top. What does this signify?

  • Flow rate of 500-1,000 GPM

  • Flow rate of 500 GPM

  • Flow rate of over 1,500 GPM

  • Flow rate of 1,000-1,500 GPM

Correct answer: Flow rate of 500-1,000 GPM

In the US, fire hydrants are color-coded to indicate their specific water flow rate using NFPA recommended practice. A fire hydrant with a red top has a flow rate of 500 gallons per minute (GPM).

A fire hydrant with an orange top has a flow rate of 500-1,000 GPM, a green hydrant has a flow rate of 1,000-1,500 GPM, and a blue hydrant has a flow rate of over 1,500 GPM. 

Safety practitioners should be aware that these NFPA recommended practices are not uniformly followed, and different color coding practices may apply.

123.

Two noise sources are immediately adjacent to one another, each producing a sound level of 85 dB. What is the sum of the sound levels?

  • 88 dB

  • 170 dB

  • 85 dB

  • 173 dB

Correct answer: 88 dB

The difference between the two noise sources is 3 dB (88 dB – 85 dB). According to the Decibel Addition Table, when there is a difference of 0 dB between two sound levels, then 3 dB should be added. Therefore, 85 dB + 3 dB = 88 dB.

The Decibel Addition Table is a summary of added logarithms, and physics explains that sound energy doubles every increase of 3 dB. If there are two identical noise sources immediately adjacent to each other, they would produce twice the sound energy of 1 source at equal dB (i.e., an increase of 3 dB).

Note: OSHA uses 5 dB as the doubling of sound energy by halving the allowed exposure time with every increase in 5 dB (i.e., TWA at 90 dB is 8 hours, and TWA at 95 dB is 4 hours). OSHA's rule is outdated but still is the legally defensible standard for hearing conservation requirements.

The other answer options are incorrect and are likely from an error or miscalculation in your equation. 

124.

How often must an employer inspect energy control procedures in their lockout/tagout program?

  • At least annually

  • At least monthly

  • At least semi-annually

  • At least quarterly

Correct answer: At least annually

Employers are required to perform a periodic inspection of their energy control procedures at least annually. This is to ensure that the procedures are being performed correctly and conform to the OSHA standard.

125.

All the following are basic elements of a biological safety containment program EXCEPT:

  • Supervisory methods

  • Laboratory practice and technique

  • Safety equipment

  • Facility design

Correct answer: Supervisory methods

The primary objective of any biological safety program is to contain any harmful or potentially harmful biological agents within a controlled environment. The three primary elements of a containment program are laboratory practice and technique, safety equipment, and facility design.

While supervisory methods are important, they are not a major component of a biological containment program.

126.

Under RCRA, what materials are designated with code "K"?

  • Hazardous waste from specific industries/sources

  • Commercial chemical products

  • Hazardous waste from nonspecific sources

  • Materials that exhibit a hazardous waste characteristic, such as corrosivity

Correct answer: Hazardous waste from specific industries/sources

Subtitle C of RCRA (40 CFR Parts 260-299) establishes a "cradle to grave" system to manage hazardous waste from generation to disposal. RCRA hazardous waste includes:

  • "P" or "U" designates specific commercial chemical products.
  • "K" designates hazardous waste from specific industries/sources.
  • "F" designates hazardous waste from nonspecific sources.
  • "D" designates materials that exhibit a hazardous characteristic (ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or toxicity).

127.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding hazardous waste and agriculture?

  • Irrigation return flows are considered hazardous waste

  • Offsite disposal could subject agricultural producers to hazardous waste generator requirements

  • Agricultural producers disposing of waste pesticides from their use are exempt from hazardous waste requirements as long as they wash the empty containers and dispose of the residue

  • Disposal of hazardous waste at an agricultural establishment could subject the agricultural producer to significant repercussions

Correct answer: Irrigation return flows are considered hazardous waste

Agricultural irrigation return flows are not considered to be hazardous waste under RCRA.

Agricultural producers are subject to hazardous waste generator requirements for any offsite disposal. Onsite disposal in an agricultural setting would constitute disposal of hazardous waste and subject the agricultural producer to significant responsibility. Agricultural producers are exempt from hazardous waste requirements when disposing of waste pesticides if specific requirements are followed.

128.

Which product liability warranty claim describes when a product does NOT perform as explicitly claimed in the product advertisement, resulting in an injury to the buyer?

  • Express

  • Implied

  • Negligence

  • Strict liability

Correct answer: Express

An express warranty is when a seller makes expressed claims about a product in its sales advertising and representation. For an express warranty claim to be successful, the plaintiff needs to establish that the product did not meet the seller’s expressed claims, which resulted in an injury.

An implied warranty is another aspect of contract law and may apply when the buyer is injured while using a product. An implied warranty is divided into:

  • merchantability (the product is fit for the ordinary purposes in which such products are used when sold by a normal seller of this type of product)
  • fitness for a particular purpose

Negligence and strict liability are also types of legal protection available to consumers, but they are not types of warranty. OSHA can regulate employers and employees but has no authority over a merchant/customer relationship.

129.

You are the supervisor for a team of employees who will be working on a project in an extremely cold environment. How should you plan on exposing the workers to these temperatures so that their risk of cold stress is as low as possible?

  • Expose them to the temperature 20% of the time for 5 days

  • Expose them to the temperatures 50% of the time on the first day and then 100% of the time for the remaining days of the project

  • Expose them to the temperature 10% of the time for each day of the project

  • Expose them to the temperature 75% of the time for 10 days

Correct answer: Expose them to the temperature 20% of the time for 5 days

Acclimation, or acclimatization, is the body's process of adaptation to a change in temperature. This process can take up to two weeks in extreme environments. 

After successful acclimation, the worker will be able to perform normal work activities efficiently in the new environment. For new workers, gradually expose them to cold temperatures for approximately 20% each day for 5 days.

130.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hearing protection?

  • Molded earplugs should only be fitted by a professional

  • Cotton earplugs are the most effective type of protection against hearing loss

  • Disposable earplugs should never be used

  • Foam earplugs do not work nearly as well as molded earplugs

Correct answer: Molded earplugs should only be fitted by a professional

High noise-level exposure is hazardous and can cause hearing loss or impairment. Specific hearing protection is required. Molded earplugs should only be fitted by a professional.

Plain cotton is ineffective as hazardous noise protection. Some disposable earplugs are effective. Foam, waxed cotton, and fiberglass wool earplugs are self-forming and, when worn properly, can work as well as molded earplugs.

131.

What type of instruction has TRADITIONALLY been conducted by a trainer who presents in the classroom?

  • Instructor-led training

  • Computer-based training

  • On-the-job training

  • Online training

Correct answer: Instructor-led training

This type of delivery method is the form of training that is routinely provided to the workforce.  

132.

Two slings support a 6,600-pound load. If the sling angle of the load is 60o, what is the total stress load for each sling?

  • 3,810 pounds

  • 7,620 pounds

  • 6,600 pounds

  • 3,300 pounds

Correct answer: 3,810 pounds

Knowing how to calculate the load factors for different hoisting and rigging configurations is important. This problem can be solved in two ways:

If A is the sling angle to load, 

sin A = a/c, or c = a/sin A, where

a = vertical component of the load (2 slings, so each sling will carry half of the load when the slings are vertical)

c = load on the sling

Substituting,

c = 3,300/sin 60 = 3,300/0.866 = 3,810 pounds 

Alternatively, for two sling loads, divide the load by 2 and again by the sin of the load angle:

(6,600/2)/sin 60 = 3,810 pounds

133.

For a company that received an OSHA citation to plead negligence by an employee, they would have to provide evidence that the policy exists, and prove that the policy was clearly communicated with documentation. What else would the company have to provide to charge the employee?   

  • Proof of effective enforcement of the policy 

  • Documented training by a certified professional

  • A witness to the negligence

  • Clearly established proof of a negative trend in the employees' performance. 

Correct answer: Proof of effective enforcement of the policy 

Most companies are able to prove the first two principles but rarely provide proof of effective enforcement. They must have solid evidence that disciplinary action was taken on employees that violated the rules. If the company can demonstrate those three principles they would have a reasonable defense to charges of violating the regulations, even in cases of death or serious injury.

134.

What statistical technique is used in decision-making to select a few tasks to produce a large overall effect?

  • Pareto analysis

  • SIPS

  • Gantt chart

  • Critical path method

Correct answer: Pareto analysis

Pareto analysis is a statistical technique used in problem-solving and decision-making to select a few tasks that will produce a significant overall effect. 

The process is based on the Pareto Principle, also known as the 80/20 rule, which states that 80% of issues are caused by 20% of causes. By focusing on the smaller number of tasks (20%) rather than all tasks, a larger impact can be made with a lower level of effort. 

A Gantt chart is a timeline showing the day, week, or month when certain project activities should be accomplished. It is a helpful tool for viewing a project at the macro level.

The critical path method (CPM) is a technique for planning the most efficient way to achieve a given objective by determining the activities and events required and showing how they relate to each other in time.

Short-interval scheduling, sometimes referred to as short-interval production schedule (SIPS), is a short-term schedule involving a two- to four-week look ahead.

135.

Near-miss reporting is an example of what?

  • A leading indicator

  • A lagging indicator

  • A corrective action

  • Deployment

Correct answer: A leading indicator

Near-miss reporting refers to the process of reporting incidents that almost occurred but did not. It is an example of a leading indicator. When people report near misses, it means that they are actively engaged in safety day-to-day. In addition, the more an individual is reporting near misses, the better they are at identifying hazards.

Lagging indicators are metrics that occur after an event has happened. Near-miss reporting is an example of preventive action, not corrective action. Deployment refers to the actual implementation of a safety plan, while near-miss reporting is simply a way to record information.

136.

You have been tasked with determining if a worker conducting a new machining operation on a metal alloy will result in exceeding an OSHA PEL. Which sampling methodology would provide the MOST accurate determination of the workers' exposure?  

  • Personal sampling

  • Grab sampling

  • Area sampling

  • Integrated sampling

Correct answer: Personal sampling

Personal sampling would provide the most accurate determination of the workers' exposure.

  • Personal sampling: The employee performing the work is provided with a sampling device that's attached to their clothes. It pulls air from their breathing zone across a filter that is sent to a laboratory for analysis. The sample can be analyzed for qualitative (is the chemical present?) and quantitative (how much?) data to determine the workers' exposure. It is the most accurate sampling methodology to use for this operation because it samples the workers' breathing zone as they move around during work.  
  • Grab sampling: This method is performed by drawing a volume of air into a sealed collection chamber or container. The sample/container is sent to a laboratory and analyzed. It can be performed with a hand held instrument, or by affixing the sampling unit to a tripod at the desired location.    
  • Area sampling: This method uses the same instrument and sampling media used in personal sampling, but is placed in a stationary location either in the vicinity of the work, or in a general area where the work is performed.  
  • Integrated sampling: Integrated sampling is used to estimate the workers' exposure by collecting one or more personal air samples. The eight-hour time-weighted average is then calculated using the formula for TWA ( C1)(T1) + (C2)(T2) +...../ 8 hours.   

137.

What is the reference value (reference level) used for sound power calculations?

  • 10-12 W

  • 10-6 W

  • 1010 W

  • 103 W

Correct answer: 10-12 W

The sound power of a source is expressed in terms of its sound power level and is written as (Lw or PWL). Sound power must be compared against a reference level, and it is helpful to memorize the sound power reference level, which is 10-12 W.

138.

A hazardous waste site medical program should include all the following components EXCEPT:

  • Sampling techniques

  • Record keeping

  • Program review

  • Treatment

Correct answer: Sampling techniques

A medical program is developed as part of the site-specific health and safety plan for a hazardous waste site. The site medical program should include surveillance, treatment, record keeping, and program review. 

Safe sampling techniques may be taught in an employee training program.

139.

Which injury is associated with vibration?

  • Raynaud's syndrome

  • Trigger finger

  • De Quervain's disease

  • Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: Raynaud's syndrome

Raynaud's syndrome is a disorder that results when blood vessels in the hand constrict from cold temperature, vibration, emotion, or unknown causes.

Trigger finger is the result of repetitive use of individual fingers for the operation of triggers (i.e., power tools), switches, and buttons. De Quervain's disease results from narrowing of the tendon sheath of the thumb due to manual tasks involving radial or inward hand motions and firm grips.

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the compression of the median nerve, median artery, and tendons passing through the carpal tunnel of the wrist.

140.

What is the minimum vertical distance between fire sprinklers and stored items or other obstructions per OSHA?

  • 18"

  • 24"

  • 36" 

  • No requirement if additional sprinklers overlap

Correct answer: 18"

Both OSHA (1910.159) and NFPA 13 prescribe 18" as the minimum distance between a sprinkler head and obstructions below. 

NFPA allows additional sprinklers to provide coverage in this scenario, but OSHA does not. So, where required by OSHA, sprinkler heads need to be kept clear of obstruction by at least a vertical distance of 18".

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