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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CDR RD Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

Severe and prolonged vomiting can cause all of the following side effects except:

  • Small bowel obstruction

  • Mallory-Weiss tear

  • Metabolic alkalosis

  • Tooth decay

Correct answer: Small bowel obstruction

Severe and prolonged vomiting can cause a Mallory-Weiss tear, metabolic alkalosis, and tooth decay. A small bowel obstruction (SBO) may cause vomiting, but vomiting does not cause SBO.

A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear in the mucous membrane, or inner lining, where the esophagus meets the stomach resulting from excessive, prolonged, and/or forceful vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis occurs from excessive loss of stomach acid from emesis. Tooth decay results from repeated purging, exposing the teeth to stomach acid.

182.

Carla is putting together a nutrition education program for low-income adults who have diabetes. Which of the following is the first step she would take in the DESIGN Procedure?

  • Select the behavior change goals for managing diabetes

  • Survey low-income adults with diabetes about how they think managing their diabetes would be beneficial

  • Select social cognitive theory as the theory-based model

  • Decide on identifying carbohydrate-containing foods as one objective of the education program

Correct answer: Select the behavior change goals for managing diabetes

The DESIGN Procedure has six steps:

D - Decide behaviors (Select the behavior change goals for managing diabetes)

E - Explore determinants (Survey low-income adults with diabetes about how they think managing their diabetes would be beneficial)

S - Select theory-based model (Select social cognitive theory as the theory-based model)

I - Indicate objectives (Decide on identifying carbohydrate-containing foods as one objective of the education program)

G - Generate plans 

N - Nail down evaluation

183.

Which of the following statements is false?

  • DNA is made up of genes.

  • DNA is made up of nucleotides.

  • Thymine is a nucleotide.

  • DNA is translated into proteins.

Correct answer: DNA is made up of genes.

Genes are made up of DNA.

DNA is made up of nucleotides. Nucleotides consist of nitrogen-containing bases adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. DNA is translated into proteins.

184.

Which of the following is not part of health literacy?

  • Adhering to health information

  • Obtaining health information

  • Communicating health information

  • Processing health information

Correct answer: Adhering to health information

Health literacy is defined as an individual’s ability to obtain, communicate, process, and understand basic health information.

Adherence to health information is dependent, in part, on health literacy.

185.

If inventory in January is overstated, how would cost of goods sold and net income be affected?

  • Cost of goods sold would be more and net income would be less than it actually was

  • Cost of goods sold would be less and net income would be more than it actually was

  • Cost of goods sold would be more and net income would be more than it actually was

  • Cost of goods sold would be less and net income would be less than it actually was

Correct answer: Cost of goods sold would be more and net income would be less than it actually was

If inventory in the first month is overstated, the cost of goods sold would be more and net income would be less than it actually was. This is because beginning inventory serves as a basis for calculations of cost of goods purchased to meet production needs, resulting cost of goods sold, and net income.

186.

What process is aimed at achieving patient care goals in a cost-effective, efficient manner?

  • Case management

  • Utilization management

  • Patient-centered medical home (PCMH)

  • Chronic Care Model (CCM)

Correct answer: Case management

Case management is a process that is aimed at achieving patient care goals in a cost-effective, efficient manner.

Utilization management is a system of streamlining care in a cost-effective way. PCMH (patient-centered medical home) is a system in which the patient's primary physician coordinates and communicates a patient's healthcare. CCM (Chronic Care Model) is an approach to chronic disease management.

187.

Which of the following statements are false about a zero-based budget?

a) It excludes previous budgets

b) All expenses must be justified

c) It adjusts a predetermined amount each year

d) Only new budget items must be justified

  • c, d

  • a, b

  • a, d

  • b, d

Correct answer: c, d

Zero-based budgets must justify all expenses, both in previous and new expenses. The previous budget is not included in the calculations because each item must be justified without inclusion of previous budgets.

Traditional budgets often adjust a predetermined amount each year, such as the amount of inflation.

188.

Which foodservice system does not involve food preparation?

  • Assembly/serve

  • Conventional

  • Commissary

  • Ready-prepared

Correct answer: Assembly/serve

The assembly/serve foodservice system does not involve food preparation. It uses fully prepared foods to assemble into meals for service.

Conventional, commissary and ready-prepared foodservice systems all involve food preparation from some amount of raw food ingredients.

189.

Which of the following signs and symptoms is not associated with dehydration?

  • Decreased BUN:Cr

  • Decreased skin turgor

  • Increased body temperature

  • Increased urine concentration

Correct answer: Decreased BUN:Cr

The signs and symptoms of dehydration include weight loss, decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membrane, postural hypertension, weak and rapid pulse, increased body temperature, decreased urine output (UOP), increased urine concentration, and elevated BUN:Cr ratio.

190.

Which of the following is not an example of an individual behavior determinant of health?

  • HIV status

  • Physical activity

  • Diet

  • Hand washing

Correct answer: HIV status

Determinants of health are the range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status. Determinants of health include biological and genetic makeup, individual behavior, social interactions and norms, physical environment, and access to health services.

Diet, physical activity, alcohol/tobacco/drug use, and handwashing are examples of individual behavior determinants of health.

HIV status is an example of a biological and genetic determinant of health.

191.

Which of the following is not a main goal of a patient care conference?

  • Implement the care plan

  • Identify patient needs

  • Discuss medical team's goals

  • Receive input from the patient's family

Correct answer: Implement the care plan

The three main goals of a care conference are:

  • Identify the patient's needs
  • Discuss the medical team's goals to address those needs
  • Discuss the family's input about how to meet those goals

Implementation of the care plan does not occur in a care conference.

192.

Which category of disease is scleroderma?

  • Autoimmune

  • Cancer

  • Cardiac

  • Acute

Correct answer: Autoimmune

Scleroderma is a chronic autoimmune disease that causes a hardening of the skin and visceral organs characterized by a deposition of fibrous connective tissue. Raynaud syndrome or Sjrogen's syndrome may occur.

Scleroderma is not a type of cancer or heart disease; it affects the organs and tissues.

193.

You have identified mothers 25-30 years old who have two or more children as the audience for your education program. What does this group represent in your marketing plan?

  • Target market

  • Marketing concept

  • Target channel

  • Market segment

Correct answer: Target market

The target group is the individuals identified as the desired audience. They are a group of people who have similar wants and needs. Identifying a target group is one of the first steps in developing a marketing plan for nutrition education programs.

The marketing concept is a business philosophy whereby resources and activities are diligently directed toward the wants and needs of customers through an exchange process. A market segment is a portion of a larger market. Target channel is a fabricated term.

194.

The process of dividing a total market into groups of people based on things such as their sex, age, religion, and race is known as:

  • Demographic segmentation

  • Geographic segmentation

  • Psychographic segmentation

  • Market segmentation

Correct answer: Demographic segmentation

Demographic segmentation is the process of dividing the total market into groups of people based on variables such as sex, age, religion, education, income, or race.

Geographic segmentation divides a market into groups based on variables such as neighborhoods, cities, regions, states, or nations. Psychographic segmentation divides a market into groups based on variables such as lifestyle, personality traits, or social class. Market segmentation is the process of dividing the total market into subgroups based on different characteristics, such as demographics, geographic location, or psychographic traits.

195.

Which of the following actions does not contribute to preventing foodborne illness through safe food handling?

  • Cook ground meat to 145°F

  • Chill leftovers from 135°-70°F within two hours and then 70°F-40° within four hours

  • All cuts and abrasions should be covered with a waterproof bandage

  • Cook chicken to 165°F

Correct answer: Cook ground meat to 145° F

Ground meat should be cooked to a minimum temperature of 155°F. Chicken should be cooked to a minimum temperature of 165°F.

Foodborne illness can be prevented through four easy steps: Clean, Separate, Cook, and Chill.

  • Clean: Wash hands and surfaces often
  • Separate: Don't cross-contaminate
  • Cook: Cook to proper temperatures
  • Chill: Refrigerate promptly

196.

Over the course of one year, during a research study, 63 women are diagnosed with breast cancer and 21 women die of breast cancer, out of a total female population of 450. At the beginning of the study, 0 out of 450 women had breast cancer. What is the incidence rate?

  • 14%

  • 4.7%

  • 33.3%

  • 19%

Correct answer: 14%

Incidence is the measure that allows you to determine a person's probability of being diagnosed with a disease during a given time period. An incidence rate is the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time divided by the number of persons at risk for the disease.

In our example, there are 63 new diagnoses of breast cancer out of a total population of 450. The incidence rate is 63 new cases / 450 total number of people at risk = 0.14 x 100 = 14%.

197.

Casey is a 46-year-old female with a past medical history significant for diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. She is admitted to the hospital for heart failure exacerbation. You are performing a nutrition-focused physical exam on Casey. You notice she has slightly dark circles under her eyes, slight depression on her temples, and visible clavicle bones.

What does her physical exam indicate to you about her nutritional status?

  • She has mild malnutrition

  • She has severe malnutrition

  • She is well-nourished

  • She is edematous

Correct answer: She has mild malnutrition

The exam areas and findings indicate mild to moderate malnutrition. The darkened area under the eyes indicates malnutrition, although that alone cannot determine the level of malnutrition. The temples would have muscle visible for a well-nourished patient. A temporal depression shows a reduction in muscle in that area, indicative of mild to moderate malnutrition.

The visible clavicle is normal in females. The edematous patient would have notable swelling in the lower extremities and/or hands.

198.

A manager acting as the spokesperson for the organization is indicative of which of the following managerial roles?

  • Informational

  • Interpersonal

  • Decisional

  • Figurehead

Correct answer: Informational

The three types of informational roles in management are monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson.

Figurehead is a type of interpersonal management role.

199.

The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' 2017 Scope of Practice was revised to include which of the following key updates to nutrition and dietetic practice?

  • Changes in ethical billing practices

  • Changes to the CDR's professional development portfolio

  • Changes in the Academy membership classifications

  • New electronic medical record charting guidelines

Correct answer: Changes in ethical billing practices

The 2017 Scope of Practice was revised to include the following key updates to nutrition and dietetic practice: changes in ethical billing practices, ordering privileges and delegated orders for RDNs, and new practice areas of coaching, global health, and telehealth.

200.

Which of the following is not one of The Three Basic Ethical Principles?

  • Evidence-based

  • Respect for persons

  • Beneficence

  • Justice

Correct answer: Evidence-based

The Three Basic Ethical Principles:

  1. Respect for persons
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice

Evidence-based refers to recommendations being based on research, and is not one of the three basic ethical principles.

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