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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CDR RD Exam Questions

Page 9 of 50

161.

Which of the following microorganisms is known as the "cafeteria bug" and results in symptoms of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea within 6-24 hours after ingestion?

  • Clostridium perfringens

  • Ciguatoxin

  • Escherichia coli

  • Shigellosis

Correct answer: Clostridium perfringens

Clostridium perfringens is a food intoxication known as the "foodservice germ" or "cafeteria bug," which results in 24-hour flu-like symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, within 6-24 hours after ingestion.

Ciguatoxin is a toxin linked to suspect fish products, such as barracuda, grouper, jack, and snapper fish.

Escherichia coli is a food-borne infection found in raw or undercooked meats, raw fruits or vegetables, raw milk, and unpasteurized apple juice. It has a slow onset of 3-8 days after ingestion and lasts 5-10 days, with the symptoms of bloody diarrhea and severe cramping.

Shigellosis is a food-borne infection caused by a lack of proper hygiene and causes bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain within 24-48 hours after ingestion and lasts 4-7 days.

162.

A lunch includes the following: 1 sandwich (1 slice of white bread, 3 ounces of low-sodium turkey breast, 1 ounce of cheese) and 1 medium banana.

Using the carbohydrate exchange, how many calories and grams of protein does the meal provide?

  • 31 g PRO, 435  kcals

  • 54 g PRO, 601 kcals

  • 75 g PRO, 700 kcals

  • 35 g PRO, 300 kcals

Correct answer: 31 g PRO, 435 kcals

Using the carbohydrate exchange, the lunch meal includes:

  • 1 slice white bread = 1 starch/bread serving = 3 g PRO, 80 kcals
  • 3 oz turkey = 3 lean protein servings = 21 g PRO, 135 kcals
  • 1 oz cheese = 1 high-fat protein serving = 7 g PRO, 100 kcals
  • 1 medium banana = 2 servings fruit = 0 g PRO, 120 kcals

TOTAL PROTEIN = 3 + 21 + 7 + 0 = 31 g PRO

TOTAL KCALS = 80 + 135 + 100 + 120 = 435 kcals

163.

A bakery wants to maintain a 30% food cost. It costs $2.589 to make a cupcake. What price should they give that cupcake?

  • $8.54

  • $5.18

  • $3.37

  • $4.40

Correct answer: $8.54

Markup factor = 100 / 30 = 3.3

Price = markup factor x portion cost

Price = 3.3 x $2.589 = $8.54

164.

Which of the following scenarios may cause hyponatremia?

  • Increased ADH secretion

  • Decreased H2O intake

  • Increased sweating

  • Decreased vasopressin excretion

Correct answer: Increased ADH secretion

The normal range for Na+ is 136-145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia (Na < 135 MEq/L) can be caused by increased use of thiazide diuretics or by antidepressants, burns, kidney or liver problems, severe diarrhea or vomiting, heart failure, increased H2O intake, ketonuria, and/or increased anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) excretion.

Hypernatremia (Na > 146 mEq/L) can be caused by decreased H2O intake, increased NaCl intake, increased sweating, decreased vasopressin excretion, and/or glycosuria.

165.

What is the storage time for refrigerated, whole, fresh poultry?

  • 1 to 2 days

  • 1 week

  • 3 to 5 days

  • 3 to 4 months

Correct answer: 1 to 2 days

The storage time for refrigerated fresh poultry (chicken or turkey, whole or pieces) is 1 to 2 days, and the freezer time is one year for whole chicken or turkey.

The storage time for refrigerated fresh beef, veal, lamb, and pork is 3 to 5 days. The freezer time for hamburger and other ground meats is 3 to 4 months.

166.

Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?

  • Vitamin B12

  • Vitamin A

  • Iron

  • Vitamin K

Correct answer: Vitamin B12

The fat-soluble vitamins are: A, E, D, and K.

All other vitamins are water-soluble (B-vitamins, vitamin C, etc). Iron is a mineral, not a vitamin.

167.

You are counseling a client who has celiac disease. She is concerned about how to identify sources of gluten.

Which of the following items is not covered by the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act (FALPCA) of 2004?

  • Medications

  • Imported processed foods

  • Dietary supplements

  • Cereals

Correct answer: Medications

Medications are not a food product, and therefore are not covered by the FALCPA.

Food products that are imported and regulated by the FDA are required to follow the FALCPA regulations. Dietary supplements are covered by the FALCPA.The FALCPA requires labeling of food items that contain the eight most common allergens, one of which is wheat (source of gluten). Cereal is a food item, so it would be covered by the FALCPA.

168.

Which by-product of alcohol metabolism causes the most significant damage to the liver?

  • Acetaldehyde

  • Acetate

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Excess water

Correct answer: Acetaldehyde

During the first step of alcohol metabolism, ADH metabolizes alcohol to acetaldehyde, a highly toxic substance, and a known carcinogen. Acetaldehyde is a significant cause of liver damage that disrupts mitochondrial function in alcoholic liver diseases such as hepatic steatosis, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis.

In the second step of alcohol metabolism, acetaldehyde is further metabolized down to a less active by-product called acetate. Acetate is further broken down into water and carbon dioxide for elimination.

169.

The normal limits for phosphorus are 2.5-4.5 mg/dL. Your patient has a phosphorous level of 8.9 mg/dL.

What could this lab value indicate about your patient?

  • Renal dysfunction

  • Refeeding syndrome

  • Malnutrition

  • Sepsis

Correct answer: Renal dysfunction

An increased phosphorus value, or hyperphosphatemia, is associated with renal dysfunction, increased dietary or IV intake, aldosterone-inhibiting diuretics, and/or dehydration. A decreased phosphorus value, or hypophosphatemia, is associated with refeeding syndrome, malnutrition, and/or sepsis.

170.

In your organization, you, a Staff Dietitian, report to the Lead Dietitian. The Lead Dietitian reports to the Coordinator of Care, a specialist who provides advice and support to the clinical leads.

Which of the following types of structure is this an example of?

  • Line and staff authority

  • Line authority

  • Coordinating

  • Directing

Correct answer: Line and staff authority

Line and staff organization positions are added that support and advise line staff (e.g. the Lead Dietitian, who directly supervises the Staff Dietitians). Line staff organizations have lines of authority with individuals responsible to those above them on the organizational chart. In large organizations, staff may be added that advise and support a line in the organization. In this case, the Coordinator of Care fulfills that staff definition. 

Both Line and staff authority and Line authority are types of organizing (a function of management). Coordinating is a function of management that works to create smooth workflows. Directing is a function of management that makes decisions and communicates them to subordinates.

171.

A patient history includes all of the following parameters, except:

  • Physical exam

  • Weight changes

  • Dietary intake

  • GI symptoms

Correct answer: Physical exam

According to the Subjective Global Assessment (SGA), the patient history (Part A) includes weight changes (patterns of loss or gain), dietary intake (duration and degree of changes), GI symptoms (N/V/C/D), and energy/functional capacity (presence of weakness or fatigue).

The physical exam (Part B) is conducted separately and after the patient's history is collected. These two steps are both important in determining the nutritional status of a patient.

172.

An outpatient renal center is adding a nutrition clinic for dialysis patients to its facility next year. This year, the center wants to pilot test the nutrition clinic.

Which of the following would not be an effective activity for the pilot test?

  • Using a group of nurses from the renal center to participate in the pilot test

  • Using a focus group to assess if the activities of the pilot test were effective

  • Interviewing pilot test participants after they complete the test clinic

  • Having dialysis patients taste items made from recipes to be used in the nutrition clinic for acceptability

Correct answer: Using a group of nurses from the renal center to participate in the pilot test

Testing before a program begins, known as pilot testing, helps identify parts of the plan that may need revision. It should be done with an audience similar to your intended audience. The nurses aren't the intended audience of the nutrition clinic, so this is not an effective plan.

Interviews and focus groups with the intended audience are acceptable activities for gathering data about the effectiveness of the pilot test. Testing recipes with the intended audience (dialysis patients) to check for acceptability would also be an effective part of pilot testing.

173.

When free fatty acids link together during frying, the oil becomes more viscous, more prone to foaming, and the oil quality decreases. This process is referred to as:

  • Polymerization

  • Hydrogenation

  • Recrystallization

  • Retrogradation

Correct answer: Polymerization

Polymerization is the process in which small molecules, called monomers, combine to produce a larger chain-like or network molecule, called a polymer. An example of this process occurs during frying when free fatty acids (FFAs) link together. This makes the oil more viscous and more prone to foaming and decreases the oil's quality.

Hydrogenation is the process of making fats and oils more solid at room temperature. An example of this process is the manufacturing of margarine. Retrogradation is the process of reforming hydrogen bonds into crystalline regions in starches. During the storage or cooling of a starch paste, the hydrogen bonds between amylose molecules break and rearrange themselves into tighter organized structures. This rearrangement and recrystallization give the product a gritty texture. An example of this process is the thawing of gravy.

174.

In a fast-food restaurant, the food service manager believes that employees need to be closely supervised and controlled because they are not motivated to work on their own. Which management theory aligns with this perspective?

  • Theory X

  • Theory Y

  • Situational management

  • Path-goal theory

Correct answer: Theory X

Theory X is based on the assumption that employees dislike working and, therefore, employees must be controlled and directed in order to get tasks accomplished.

Theory Y is based on the assumption that employees find value in work and prefer to be self-directed in order to get tasks done. Situational management theory proposes that leadership effectiveness is a combination of factors. Path-goal management theory states that a leader's function is to reward subordinates and provide them with an easy path to those rewards.

175.

The Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA), which amended the FD&C Act, requires most foods to have nutrition labeling and requires food labels that have nutrient content claims and certain health messages to comply with specific requirements.

What is NLEA an example of?

  • Regulation

  • Federal Register

  • Congressional Record

  • Bill

Correct answer: Regulation

Regulations are guidelines that detail how a law will be implemented and any penalties that may be imposed if the law is violated. NLEA is an example of a nutrition label regulation by the FDA.

The Federal Register is the daily journal of the United States government, which provides weekly updates for public hearings, proposed/final rules, and agency decisions. The Congressional Record is the official record of the proceedings and debates of the United States Congress, published by the United States Government Publishing Office and issued when Congress is in session. A bill is a form or draft of a proposed statute presented to a legislature, but not yet enacted or passed and made law.

176.

Refeeding syndrome related to parenteral nutrition does not result in low levels of which of the following?

  • Blood glucose

  • Potassium

  • Magnesium

  • Phosphorus

Correct answer: Blood glucose

Refeeding syndrome that occurs in relation to parenteral nutrition results in low levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphorus. It can lead to high levels of blood glucose.

177.

What particles transport dietary lipids in the bloodstream?

  • Chylomicrons

  • Micelles

  • Glycerol

  • Fatty acids

Correct answer: Chylomicrons

Chylomicrons are lipoprotein particles made of triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins. They are formed during fat digestion and transport dietary lipids in the bloodstream.

Micelles are the end products of fat digestion composed of monoglycerides, diglycerides, long-chain fatty acids, and bile salts. This water-soluble particle is absorbed into the intestinal cells.

The end products of fat digestion are monoglycerides, diglycerides, glycerol, and fatty acids. These end products are directly absorbed into portal blood.

178.

All the following are basic functions of management, except:

  • Strategize

  • Plan

  • Organize

  • Control

Correct answer: Strategize

The fundamental functions of management include planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling. These functions are essential for ensuring that an organization runs smoothly and meets its objectives.

Strategy is used in strategic planning and marketing to set the direction for an organization by determining long-term goals and the best way to approach them.

179.

What characteristic would you expect to be elevated in an individual with Prader-Willi syndrome?

  • Body fat mass

  • Lean body mass

  • Stature

  • Testosterone

Correct answer: Body fat mass

Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder of chromosome 15 deletion that causes obesity, intellectual disability, and shortness in height. Levels of ghrelin are elevated, which stimulates growth hormone secretion, appetite, food intake, and fat mass deposition. As a result, individuals with this syndrome tend to become obese by a young age (2-3 years old), have high body fat mass, short stature, and hypogonadism (low testosterone levels).

180.

Which of the following is—by definition—a patient-centered treatment?

  • Palliative care

  • Medical nutrition therapy

  • Alternative medicine

  • Surgery

Correct answer: Palliative care

Palliative care occurs when curative measures are not considered to be an option either by the medical team or the individual. It focuses on making the individual as comfortable as possible and supporting them in having as much quality of life as possible. Goals are focused on what the patient considers most important.

MNT (medical nutrition therapy) is not, by definition, patient-centered, although patient desires and preferences should be taken into account in effective MNT. Alternative medicine refers to nontraditional therapies used instead of traditional medicine, which is not necessarily patient-centered.

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