EIC CMP Exam Questions

Correct answer: Products liability

Products liability insurance, also known as host and alcohol liability insurance, can protect your group against claims such as food poisoning. Host liability or alcohol liability insurance may protect the event sponsor against claims resulting from serving alcoholic beverages.

Medical liability insurance covers injuries but not illnesses caused by food, which are more directly addressed by products liability insurance. Public liability insurance covers general bodily injury and property damage but does not specifically address issues arising from food products. Umbrella policies provide additional coverage beyond basic liabilities but do not specifically focus on product-related claims like food poisoning, which is specifically covered under products liability insurance.

Correct answer: Require a password

There are many different ways to distribute marketing materials and one of these ways is through mobile applications. If the organization is concerned about protecting proprietary information, mobile apps can be set up to require a password. It is easiest to send participants the password for the app and ask that they not share it, however, this approach might not be secure enough.

Prohibiting anyone outside of the organization from accessing the app is impractical as mobile apps are often designed to engage a broader audience including attendees, sponsors, and partners. Requiring a background check for every user is overly rigorous, costly, and not feasible for general app usage, which typically includes a wide array of users attending various events. Removing all confidential information temporarily defeats the purpose of providing crucial event-related information through the app and could significantly limit its functionality and value to the users. Each of these options fails to address the practicalities of app security as effectively as simply requiring a password.

Correct answer: Identifying the event owner

The first priority in managing stakeholder activities is to clearly identify the event owner, the person who has requested the event and is responsible for defining its overall objectives and measurable outcomes. The event owner has a critical role and should be in a position to allocate resources, engage with other stakeholders, influence change, and remove barriers to ensure the event's success.

Recruiting participants is important but should come after the event owner is identified to align efforts with the event's objectives. Defining the budget is crucial, yet it necessitates guidance from the event owner to ensure alignment with event goals. Signing with sponsors requires a clear understanding of the event's vision and objectives, which are established by the event owner.

Correct answer: Incident report

If an incident occurs at a meeting or event, it is crucial to have an incident report form completed, even if the danger is averted. An incident report form completed at the time of the incident is the best record of what occurred and can be used later against a charge of negligence.

Video footage may be available, but written documentation is better and can provide a larger picture of the context in which the incident occurred. An incident report should include witness interviews. A legal summary is not needed to simply record the incident.

Correct answer: Infrequent publishers

Infrequent publishers is not a category of important influencers. Passionate publishers would be correct, but not "infrequent" publishers.

Altruistic activators often engage with causes and movements that they care deeply about, making them influential due to their genuine commitment, which can be harnessed for marketing partnerships that align with their values. Connected catalysts have extensive networks and the ability to initiate change or action through their connections, making them valuable for spreading messages widely. Everyday advocates are regular individuals who share their experiences and recommendations with their personal networks, often influencing decisions within their circle effectively.

Correct answer: 30 inches

It is extremely important that event professionals are aware of the dimensions of the tables and chairs being used at the event, not only to understand the amount of space required for the function but also to know how the furniture will impact meal functions and meetings. Most schoolroom and banquet tables are 30 inches (76 centimeters) high.

36 inches often refers to counter height, which is too tall for standard banquet seating arrangements. 24 inches is generally the height of children’s or coffee tables, which are not suitable for dining or conference settings. 27 inches is slightly lower than the standard, often used for certain types of specialty tables or personal desks but not ideal for banquet settings. In contrast, 30 inches is the industry standard for schoolroom and banquet tables, providing optimal height for dining and note-taking during events, ensuring guest comfort and suitability for meal functions and meetings.

Correct answer: Convention Services Manager

The CSM manages all parts before, during, and after the event. The CSM is an integral part of the financial aspect of an event and should be closely involved in the master account and other areas of events such as the cost of food and beverages.

Consumer Service Marketer focuses on marketing to consumers, not managing event services. Cash Services Manager handles financial transactions unrelated to event planning. Chart of Supplier Management is not a recognized role within event planning, but rather a potential tool or process.

Correct answer: Webcasting; offering retrievable webcast segments leading up to, during, and after the meeting to provide valuable and informative content for the registrants and targeted audience.

Webcasting allows meeting organizers to stream media content on their meeting website, providing valuable and informative materials for attendees. This approach increases traffic to the meeting website, engages the audience, and offers opportunities for effective messaging.

Social media contests primarily boost engagement and awareness but might not extend the reach or depth of content delivery as webcasting can. Radio advertisements are effective for local outreach but do not offer the interactive or content-rich capabilities of webcasting, nor do they engage a global audience. Printed newsletters provide updates and information but lack the immediacy and interactive potential of webcasting, making them less effective for real-time engagement during the event. None of these alternatives match the comprehensive reach and engagement capabilities of webcasting, which not only broadens the audience but also enhances participant interaction through live and retrievable content, making it the most effective option for maximizing both reach and engagement in a large meeting.

Correct answer: Hybrid meetings

Hybrid meetings seamlessly merge the advantages of face-to-face meetings and virtual meetings, creating a dynamic and inclusive event format. These meetings feature a live in-person component and a virtual online component, allowing participants to attend and engage in the meeting either physically or remotely. This hybrid approach maximizes accessibility, enabling individuals to participate regardless of their location or travel limitations.

Geographic meetings typically refer to meetings that are held in a specific physical location, which does not inherently include virtual participation elements. Natural meetings is not a recognized term in event planning that conveys the integration of virtual and physical meeting formats. Weekly meetings describe the frequency of meetings rather than their format, which does not address the blend of face-to-face and virtual participation.

Correct answer: Engaging

Engaging room sets provide a moderate level of attendee interaction. These formats actively promote two-way engagement during meeting activities, fostering a balanced blend of one-way and two-way communication flow. The room sets encompass boardroom, U-shaped, and hollow square configurations.

'Disengaging' suggests a lack of involvement and does not facilitate interaction, making it unsuitable for interactive sessions. 'Configurations' is a general term that refers to any form of arrangement and lacks specificity. 'Parsing' relates more to a breakdown of information and does not directly relate to room setups or interaction levels.

Correct answer: Round

Round tables are commonly used in events, with the standard size being 72 inches in diameter, although some facilities may also provide 60- and 66-inch options. These tables are often referred to as "banquet-style" seating arrangements, offering a circular layout that promotes social interaction among attendees.

Rectangular tables are typically used for classroom or conference setups, focusing more on function than fostering group interaction. Cabaret tables feature an open end facing the stage or a central point, supporting performances and presentations, but do not facilitate all-around interaction as effectively as round tables. Serpentine tables are used for unique configurations and decorative displays, curving in a snake-like shape, which makes them less conducive for group conversations compared to the inclusive circular layout of round tables.

Correct answer: Strategic risk

Strategic risk is an important consideration for meeting professionals. Managing their reputation becomes paramount in this arena, as meeting professionals must proactively address strategic risks to maintain a positive brand image and ensure long-term success.

Compliance risk pertains to the need to adhere to laws and regulations, not strategic positioning. Legal risk involves potential legal liabilities and does not focus on marketing or consumer preferences. Performance risk relates to the potential for failing to achieve performance standards and is not directly connected to strategic decision-making or marketing.

Correct answer: The total budget for the event

An event profile captures all information gathered and provides specifications of an event. These event profiles should be reviewed periodically and updated to ensure that they are accurate. Elements of an event profile include detailed information on the group, attendees, event theme, history, and preferred dates. The event budget is not included in this profile.

The theme of the event provides a cohesive direction for the event's design and activities. The history behind the event offers context that can enrich the attendee experience and inform planning decisions. Detailed information on event attendees helps tailor the event to meet the specific needs and interests of those attending.

Correct answer: Previous sponsor

When it comes to securing sponsorships, opportunities can arise from various sources. However, giving priority to previous sponsors is a prudent approach. The ability to retain sponsors for multiple years heavily relies on their experience and satisfaction. In this regard, considering negotiations for multi-event agreements with previous sponsors becomes essential, as it strengthens relationships and fosters enduring partnerships.

Current suppliers or exhibitors are not primarily sought for multi-event sponsorship agreements. Your stakeholders may have an interest in the event's success but are not typically the primary source for initiating sponsorship discussions. Research is a tool for identifying potential sponsors, not a source of sponsorship itself.

Correct answer: Public relations management

In light of the widespread use of social media platforms, effectively monitoring and managing posts and comments related to a meeting has become a crucial aspect of public relations. It only takes a few dissatisfied past participants or potential attendees to initiate a negative campaign that can significantly impact an upcoming event. To mitigate such risks, numerous electronic tools are available to aid in PR management by closely monitoring online conversations. This includes keeping a vigilant eye on any affiliated celebrities or speakers associated with the meeting. By proactively monitoring and addressing online chatter, meeting professionals can promptly address concerns, manage the event's reputation, and ensure a positive perception of the event among the online community.

Online community engagement focuses on interacting with and involving the online community but does not specifically address the management of an event's public perception. Reputation management is more closely aligned with the broader efforts to maintain a positive public image of an organization or individual but is not limited to managing social media conversations related to an event. Social media optimization involves enhancing the visibility and reach of social media content but does not specifically focus on maintaining a positive perception of an event through monitoring and management of online conversations.

Correct answer: Direct competition in the realm of meetings encompasses events organized by rival industry associations, local chapter meetings of the hosting organization, as well as webinars and online training programs.

In the realm of meetings, direct competition arises from similar gatherings taking various forms. Traditional association conferences face obvious competition from events organized by rival industry associations, as well as local chapter meetings of the hosting organization. Additionally, in the digital era, webinars and online training programs have emerged as potential competitors, offering alternative avenues for knowledge sharing and professional development. The dynamic landscape of meeting options necessitates a comprehensive understanding of the competitive landscape to effectively position and differentiate a meeting within the market.

Direct competition is limited to local chapter meetings of the hosting organization and overlooks the broader spectrum of competitive events that can influence participant attendance and engagement, such as those organized by rival associations. Asserting that direct competition only includes events by rival associations and excluding webinars or online training overlooks the expanding digital landscape where virtual events are increasingly significant competitors due to their accessibility and convenience. The claim that direct competition has no impact as long as unique content and speakers are provided underestimates the influence of competing events on potential attendees' decisions, where factors like timing, accessibility, and cost also play crucial roles.

Correct answer: Advertising

Advertising serves as an additional source of revenue for meetings. A carefully devised marketing strategy plays a vital role in promoting the event and attracting a larger audience. As part of this strategy, it is important to solicit related companies or products to advertise in the meeting's promotional materials and during the event itself. As attendance numbers rise, the opportunity to acquire advertisers also increases, leading to a growth in advertising revenue. This mutually beneficial relationship between increased attendance and expanded advertising opportunities contributes to the overall financial success of the meeting.

Promoting is a broader activity that encompasses various techniques, not specifically tied to generating direct revenue. Offering refers to providing services or goods, which may not directly contribute to promotion or audience expansion. Strategizing is about creating plans, which is more general and does not directly imply revenue generation or promotional activity.

Correct answer: They are primarily owned and operated by corporations

Corporate conference centers are owned and operated by corporations primarily for internal training purposes. These facilities are designed to meet the specific needs of the company and its employees, providing a dedicated space for corporate events and training programs.

They meet the specific needs of the company and its owners is a characteristic of many types of conference centers, not just corporate ones. They provide a dedicated space for only training programs is too limiting, as corporate conference centers may host various internal events beyond training. They are designed for external business purposes is incorrect, as corporate conference centers are primarily intended for internal corporate use.

Correct answer: Ethics

Ethics can be challenging to define and discuss, as they encompass a broad spectrum of principles and values. While it may be difficult to provide a precise definition, unethical behavior is often recognizable when encountered. According to the dictionary, ethics is characterized as a system of moral standards or values.

Virtues refer to individual qualities or traits deemed morally good, not a system itself. Integrity involves consistency of actions, values, methods, measures, principles, expectations, and outcomes, emphasizing personal adherence to ethical codes but it does not define those codes. Due care is a legal term that refers to the effort made to avoid harm to others, a practice rooted in ethical consideration but not a system of ethics itself.

Correct answer: Printing and strategically placing informative signs throughout the venue

Signage plays a crucial role in promoting the meeting to attendees on-site and serves as a powerful marketing tool. It can convey essential information such as session schedules, room numbers, directions, and important announcements, providing clear navigation and guidance for participants.

Print signs ensure information accessibility and navigation within the venue, crucial for on-site communication. A mobile event app, while useful, requires digital access and might not be used by all. Email newsletters and social media walls are less effective for immediate, on-site guidance.