EIC CMP Exam Questions

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121.

What tactic is particularly effective for engaging media and ensuring extensive coverage during a conference featuring high-profile elements like a prominent keynote speaker, a new product unveiling by a vendor, or the showcase of innovative technology?

  • Press conference

  • Networking event

  • Social media campaign

  • Sponsorship activation

Correct answer: Press conference

A press conference is a strategic approach to garner media attention for events with significant or newsworthy elements. It provides a formal setting where journalists can gather firsthand information, interact directly with key figures, and obtain exclusive insights into the event’s highlights. Whether it’s announcing a prominent keynote speaker, the launch of an innovative product, or the introduction of cutting-edge technology, a press conference offers a focused opportunity for detailed coverage, thereby maximizing media exposure and enhancing the event's public profile.

A networking event is generally intended for attendee interaction and does not inherently draw media attention unless coupled with significant announcements or features. A social media campaign can amplify event visibility but typically complements rather than replaces direct media engagement strategies. Sponsorship activation focuses on sponsor-related promotions and may not sufficiently highlight other newsworthy aspects of the event. Conversely, a press conference is designed to directly engage the media, providing a platform for detailed announcements and direct questions, making it an ideal strategy for promoting notable event highlights.

122.

You have just been hired as a new event planner for a large company. While in a meeting with an executive, you are discussing profit, the break-even goal, and a deficit for an event. Which of the following does this best describe?

  • Financial goals for meetings

  • Financial goals for the organization

  • Budgeting goals for meetings

  • Costs incentive goals for meetings

Correct answer: Financial goals for meetings

Meetings typically encompass three primary financial objectives.

  • Profit: This objective aims to achieve a surplus of revenue over expenses, resulting in net income.
  • Break-even goal: This entails generating revenue that precisely matches the incurred expenses, resulting in a balanced financial outcome.
  • Deficit: In this scenario, expenses surpass the generated revenue, necessitating financial support from the host or organization to cover the shortfall.

"Financial goals for the organization" suggests a broader focus on the entire organization's financial strategy, which extends beyond specific event objectives and encompasses long-term financial planning and sustainability. "Budgeting goals for meetings" focuses more narrowly on the planning and allocation aspect of finances specifically for meetings, not directly addressing profit generation or deficit considerations. "Costs incentive goals for meetings" is not a commonly used term and misrepresents the financial objectives discussed, which relate to overall financial performance rather than specific incentives related to cost management.

123.

Which of the following describes the entity that constantly assesses and expands its roster of speakers, enabling it to recommend the most suitable speaker from its portfolio based on the specific meeting requirements, objectives, or topic?

  • Speakers bureau

  • Meeting bureau

  • Presenters bureau

  • Stakeholders bureau

Correct answer: Speakers bureau

Speakers bureaus serve as valuable intermediaries between event planners and a wide selection of professional speakers. These bureaus establish and nurture relationships with numerous speakers who specialize in various topics and offer different fee ranges, providing convenient access to a diverse pool of speakers through a single contact. With their extensive network, speakers bureaus constantly assess and expand their roster of speakers, enabling them to recommend the most suitable speaker from their portfolio based on the specific meeting requirements, objectives, or topic.

A meeting bureau focuses on destination marketing rather than speaker representation. A presenters bureau is not a commonly used term for organizations that manage speaker portfolios. The stakeholders bureau does not exist as an entity in the context of providing speakers for events.

124.

Why is the selection of the meeting environment critical for event planners?

  • The meeting environment plays a crucial role in setting the mood and atmosphere for effective communication and engagement.

  • The meeting environment has no impact on the mood or atmosphere of the event.

  • The meeting environment is solely responsible for determining the event's financial success.

  • The meeting environment is irrelevant to the overall experience and engagement of attendees.

Correct answer: The meeting environment plays a crucial role in setting the mood and atmosphere for effective communication and engagement.

The meeting environment refers to the designated space where individuals gather for a meeting. It encompasses three key aspects: the physical environment, which pertains to the tangible elements of the space; the physiological environment, which considers factors related to comfort and well-being; and the psychological environment, which involves the atmosphere and ambiance created within the space.

The meeting environment significantly impacts the mood and atmosphere of an event, contrary to the claim that it has no impact. While important, the meeting environment alone does not determine an event's financial success, as other factors like marketing, content, and participant engagement also play critical roles. Asserting that the meeting environment is irrelevant undermines the substantial effect that venue ambiance, layout, and facilities have on attendee experience and engagement.

125.

What is a key advantage of conducting surveys on-site at an event?

  • The participants are immediately available

  • They are extremely cost-effective

  • They use handwriting rather than technology

  • They usually collect more favorable opinions than mail-in surveys

Correct answer: The participants are immediately available

Surveys and questionnaires are evaluation tools for events. On-site surveys are often used because participants are immediately available; if participants are asked to complete surveys several days after an event, the response rate is much lower.

On-site surveys might require additional resources like kiosks or staff to manage, which can increase costs rather than be cost-effective. They often utilize digital tools for efficiency and accuracy, making the use of handwriting an outdated method. There is no consistent evidence suggesting that on-site surveys inherently result in more favorable feedback compared to mail-in surveys as response bias can vary widely depending on the event and its attendees.

126.

As an event planner, you are in a meeting with your supervisor and are discussing the type of security involving high-profile individuals for your upcoming event. Which of the following does this best describe?

  • Personal security

  • High-profile security

  • Event security

  • Peer security

Correct answer: Personal security

Personal security is comprised of individuals responsible for safeguarding attendees who face elevated risks, such as celebrities, presidents, or prime ministers of countries. Their primary duty is to ensure the safety and protection of these high-profile individuals.

High-profile security is not a standard term and lacks the specific focus on individual protection that personal security provides. Event security refers to the overall safety measures at an event and does not specifically focus on high-profile individuals. Peer security typically involves safeguarding within a peer group or organization and is not tailored to protecting high-profile individuals.

127.

Which of the following is not a stage in the design thinking methodology?

  • Illustration

  • Inspiration

  • Ideation

  • Implementation

Correct answer: Illustration

Design thinking is the process of integrating the event professional's skills and methods to match participants' needs with what is technologically and financially feasible. There are three distinct phases in the design thinking process: inspiration, ideation, and implementation.

Inspiration is the starting phase where the challenge is understood, making it a core part of design thinking. Ideation involves brainstorming solutions which is crucial for developing innovative approaches. Implementation is about putting plans into action and is essential for realizing the event's vision.

128.

How often should managers reinforce norms of acceptable behavior for employees and volunteers?

  • Daily

  • Weekly

  • Monthly

  • Biannually

Correct answer: Daily

Managers should reinforce norms of acceptable behavior for employees and volunteers on a day-to-day basis. This means that event leaders should set a good example by being respectful, modeling appropriate behavior in all interactions, and correcting inappropriate behavior when it occurs.

Reinforcing norms weekly, monthly, or biannually does not provide the immediate feedback required to effectively manage behavior at events. Weekly reinforcements might allow undesirable behaviors to persist for too long, while monthly and biannual schedules do not offer the consistency needed to establish and maintain professional standards, potentially letting inappropriate behaviors become ingrained and harder to correct.

129.

You are in a meeting with a senior leader within your organization regarding the next event. You are both performing incremental budgeting to address necessary modification requirements for the upcoming budget period. Which of the following is true regarding incremental budgeting?

  • Incremental budgeting ensures that budget adjustments are aligned with the new circumstances and demands of the upcoming budget period.

  • This approach ensures that the changes reflect the evolving circumstances and requirements for the previous budget period.

  • This approach ensures that the changes reflect the evolving circumstances and requirements for the next budget period.

  • This approach does not ensure that the changes reflect the evolving circumstances and requirements for the new budget period.

Correct answer: Incremental budgeting ensures that budget adjustments are aligned with the new circumstances and demands of the upcoming budget period.

Incremental budgeting involves developing a budget by utilizing the previous budget or actual performance as a starting point and subsequently incorporating necessary modifications for the upcoming budget period. In the context of incremental budgeting, adjustments are made to each variable (line item) by taking into account factors like inflation and other alterations that affect the variable, such as volume or required amount. This approach ensures that the changes reflect the evolving circumstances and requirements for the new budget period.

Stating that incremental budgeting reflects changes for the previous budget period is incorrect as this method focuses on upcoming needs rather than retrospective adjustments. While the correct statement mentions the next budget period, saying it "does not ensure" changes reflect new requirements contradicts the principle of incremental budgeting, which specifically aims to update budget assumptions based on new information and circumstances.

130.

What is the significance of convention centers being strategically located in metropolitan or downtown areas?

  • They enhance the overall experience for attendees traveling to the destination

  • They offer a small range of accommodation options for participants

  • They provide access to regional and national events

  • They offer a convenient location for government meetings

Correct answer: They enhance the overall experience for attendees traveling to the destination

Convention centers serve as the venue for various types of gatherings, ranging from local and state-level meetings to regional, national, and even international events. These centers are often strategically situated in metropolitan or downtown areas, offering a convenient location for attendees. By being located in such areas, convention centers provide easy access to a multitude of hotels, restaurants, and attractions. This proximity to accommodations, dining options, and local attractions enhances the overall experience for attendees who are traveling to the destination for the event.

They offer a small range of accommodation options for participants is incorrect as metropolitan areas typically provide a wide range of accommodation options. They provide access to regional and national events is true but not unique to metropolitan or downtown locations, as many convention centers, regardless of location, host such events. They offer a convenient location for government meetings is not a primary reason for their strategic placement, as the convenience for government meetings is incidental rather than a core benefit.

131.

How a business gets its products to consumers is known as which of the following?

  • The marketing distribution channel

  • Advertising strategy

  • Integrated marketing communication

  • Direct marketing approach

Correct answer: The marketing distribution channel

The term marketing distribution channel refers to how a business gets its products to the customers. Marketing channels and distribution channels are also used when referring to activities necessary to transfer the ownership of goods from the point of production to the point of consumption.

Advertising strategy refers to the methods used to promote products but does not involve the physical or logistical process of distribution. Integrated marketing communication involves a cohesive marketing message across various channels but doesn't specifically address distribution logistics. A direct marketing approach focuses on direct communication with consumers and, while it may include distribution elements, is not synonymous with the distribution channel itself.

132.

All of the following are key areas of focus for employees and labor unions, except:

  • Sustainability

  • Compensation

  • Public image of the organization

  • Health and safety

Correct answer: Sustainability

The key areas of focus for employees and labor unions include compensation, organizational stability, job satisfaction and security, future opportunities, the public image of the organization, and health and safety. Sustainability is a key area of focus for the procurement department, not employees and labor unions.

Compensation, public image, and health and safety are direct concerns of employees and unions, impacting their immediate work conditions and rights. Sustainability, while important, is generally managed by specific departments focused on environmental impacts and corporate responsibility.

133.

When developing a project schedule, the event professional estimates the amount of time needed to complete each of the tasks. This is known as which of the following?

  • Forecasting

  • Managing

  • Communicating

  • Breaking down

Correct answer: Forecasting

Forecasting refers to the process of anticipating the amount of time needed to complete each of the tasks. It also includes assigning a unit of time to each activity in the project schedule. It can help determine how long a project will take to complete from beginning to end.

Managing involves overseeing and coordinating various aspects of the event, rather than specifically estimating task durations. Communicating involves the exchange of information between team members or stakeholders and does not pertain directly to time estimation for tasks. Breaking down generally refers to decomposing the project into smaller, manageable parts, which, while related to planning, is not specifically about time estimation.

134.

Financial data related to an event should be all of the following, except:

  • Nonspecific

  • Legitimate

  • Accurate

  • Credible

Correct answer: Nonspecific

Every event's finances need to be carefully monitored and managed. The proper use of financial processes and systems will provide reassurance to stakeholders that the financial data being provided is credible and accurate. Financial data should always be as specific as possible, not vague or nonspecific.

Financial data must be legitimate, meaning it should be lawful and conform to established rules and standards. It also needs to be accurate to ensure that it reflects true amounts and transactions related to the event, minimizing errors and discrepancies. Additionally, financial data should be credible, meaning it must be trustworthy and reliable for stakeholders to base their decisions on it.

135.

Which type of service occurs when specific items are prepared and served tableside?

  • French

  • Russian

  • American

  • Family-style (English)

Correct answer: French

In French service, items are prepared and served tableside. Due to the number of highly-trained staff needed, the number of service carts required, and the time needed for cooking, this is not suitable for large group service.

In Russian service, each item is placed by a server onto the guest's plate at the table, which is different from preparing and serving items tableside. Family-style (English) service involves guests serving themselves from platters of food, not items prepared and served tableside. 'American service' is a fabricated term and does not describe a recognized type of service.

136.

You should consider factors such as time zones, languages, and cultures in which of the following situations?

  • When your organization is holding an international event

  • When a speaker was born in a foreign country

  • When hosting a diverse group

  • When serving ethnic foods at an event meal

Correct answer: When your organization is holding an international event

Marketing professionals should be careful to research the cultural aspects of the host country to ensure that they are marketing to a global audience. Organizing an event with international attendees requires attention to cultures and customs, countries and regions, languages, perceptions, and time and distance.

While a speaker's foreign birthplace may introduce cultural elements, it does not necessarily involve considerations like time zones or languages for event planning. Hosting a diverse group could require sensitivity to cultural differences but may not involve the logistical complexities of handling international time zones or multiple languages. Serving ethnic foods at an event highlights culinary diversity but does not typically necessitate adjustments for time zones or multilingual communication.

137.

Which of the following should not be included on the envelope of an invitation for a dignitary?

  • Ambassador (name) and family

  • His/Her Excellency

  • Full name (with no prefix)

  • The Ambassador of (name of Country)

Correct answer: Ambassador (name) and family

The proper salutation is important when addressing an invitation to a dignitary. A formal invitation should be addressed in black ink. For a dignitary, three lines are used to address the envelope: His/Her Excellency, full name (with no prefix), and The Ambassador of (name of Country).

His/Her Excellency is a proper and respectful way to address a dignitary. Full name (with no prefix) is also appropriate for formal invitations to dignitaries. The Ambassador of (name of Country) correctly identifies the dignitary's position and country. "Ambassador (name) and family" is too informal and not appropriate for addressing a dignitary in a formal invitation.

138.

All of the following are levels included in the Phillips ROI pyramid, except:

  • Participation

  • Learning

  • Application

  • Impact

Correct answer: Participation

Event measurement helps the event professional demonstrate the value of the event. The Phillips Return On Investment (ROI) methodology considers inputs and indicators for events at six levels of evaluation. These levels, in order, include inputs and indicators, reaction, satisfaction, planned action, learning, application, impact, and ROI. Participation is not one of these levels.

Learning is a key level that measures the increase in knowledge or skills. Application assesses how well participants apply what they have learned. Impact measures the tangible results of the application of learning.

139.

All of the following are considerations for safety and security resources, except:

  • Who will be responsible for hiring security staff?

  • Is outside security needed?

  • What are the insurance requirements?

  • Have venue and destination risks been assessed and analyzed?

Correct answer: Who will be responsible for hiring security staff?

Producing an event requires several resources. One category is safety and security resources, which refers to whether venue and destination risks have been assessed and analyzed, if outside security is needed, and what the insurance requirements are. Who will be responsible for hiring security staff is a question that falls under the category of human resources requirements.

Determining if outside security is needed is a key safety and security consideration. Assessing and analyzing venue and destination risks is crucial for ensuring a secure event environment. Understanding insurance requirements is vital for covering potential liabilities and risks. The responsibility for hiring security staff pertains to human resources management, not directly to safety and security resources.

140.

What is the recommended frequency for an event professional to review their project plan? 

  • On a regular basis

  • Monthly

  • Every other month

  • Every six months

Correct answer: On a regular basis

There are many different methods and programs event planners can use to remind them of significant deadlines and tasks related to their projects. However, regardless of the format or technology selected, the event planner should refer to his or her plan on a regular basis. This is probably more often than monthly but may not be as often as daily, depending on the dates and scope of the project.

Monthly, every other month, and every six months intervals are too infrequent for effective project management, failing to accommodate the dynamic nature of event planning which can require adjustments at a moment's notice.