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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

A physical therapist assistant is treating a child with Down syndrome. Which of the following options is likely the LEAST APPROPRIATE goal for physical therapy with this patient?

  • Sensory integration

  • Gross motor development

  • Increased strength

  • Improved oral motor function

Correct answer: Sensory integration

Sensory integration is a likely goal for a patient with autism, rather than a patient with Down syndrome.

Goals for patients with Down syndrome commonly include gross and fine motor development, increased strength and stability, and improved oral motor function.

182.

While treating a patient with full-thickness wounds with necrosis, the PTA applies glycerine-based gels that are insoluble in water. What type of wound dressing is this?

  • Hydrogels

  • Alginates

  • Foams

  • Hydrocolloids

Correct answer: Hydrogels

Hydrogels are water- or glycerine-based gels that are insoluble in water. They are available as solid sheets, amorphous gels, or impregnated gauze. This type of dressing is used for partial- and full-thickness wounds, and those with necrosis and slough. They are soothing and cooling to the patient, and they rehydrate dry wound beds.

Alginates are soft, absorbent, nonwoven dressings derived from seaweed and often used for wounds with moderate to large amounts of exudate. Alginates react with wound exudate to form a viscous hydrophilic gel mass over the wound area. Foams are semipermeable membranes that are either hydrophilic or hydrophobic. They vary in thickness, absorptive capacity, and adhesive properties. They are indicated for partial- and full-thickness wounds with minimal or moderate exudate. Hydrocolloids are adhesive wafers that contain absorptive particles that interact with wound fluid to form a gelatinous mass over the wound bed. They are indicated for protection of partial-thickness wounds and wounds with mild exudate, maintaining a moist wound environment.

183.

A women's health specialist is working with a patient after having two cesarean section childbirths. The patient has complaints of urinary incontinence and abdominal weakness. This therapist identifies that the patient is limited by postoperative incisional pain.

What is an appropriate intervention to address the pain immediately after the surgery?

  • TENS with electrodes placed parallel to the incision

  • Abdominal strengthening with sit-ups over an exercise ball

  • Kegal exercises for pelvic floor

  • Friction massage over the incision

Correct answer: TENS with electrodes placed parallel to the incision

One way to manage postoperative pain is with the use of TENS (transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation). The electrodes should be placed parallel to the incision to protect the incisional healing.

Friction massage would be appropriate to prevent incisional adhesions but may actually increase pain, and should not be performed this early in the healing process in order to protect the integrity of the incision. Sit-ups over an exercise ball are not appropriate immediately after a cesarean section delivery as this type of exercise is too aggressive. Kegel's exercises may improve urinary incontinence but will not reduce the incisional pain.

184.

Which statement is TRUE of concentric exercise?

  • It is a type of isotonic exercise.

  • It is a type of isometric exercise.

  • It consumes less energy than eccentric exercise against similar loads.

  • The contracting muscle does not change in length.

Correct answer: It is a type of isotonic exercise.

Concentric exercise is a type of isotonic exercise. Eccentric exercise is also a type of isotonic exercise. In both eccentric and concentric exercises, the muscle tension increases while the muscle length changes. In a concentric contraction, the muscle gets shorter. In an eccentric contraction, the muscle gets longer.

In an isometric exercise, the muscle tension increases while its length stays the same. Eccentric exercise consumes less energy than concentric exercise against similar loads—not vice versa.

185.

When an infant is born prematurely, they may develop certain health complications. Which of the following is a type of chronic lung disease resulting from damage to the lungs during mechanical ventilation?

  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

  • Meconium aspiration syndrome

  • Respiratory distress syndrome

  • Hyaline membrane disease

Correct answer: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a chronic lung disease. It is caused by damage to the lungs during mechanical ventilation, oxygen administration, and/or chronic respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It is commonly seen in premature infants. 

Meconium aspiration syndrome may occur when there is a bowel movement in utero that mixes with the amniotic fluid. The near-term or term infant inhales the substance and can develop respiratory distress. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), or hyaline membrane disease, is caused by insufficient surfactant in premature lungs. 

186.

Which of the following options is a common sign or symptom of undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus?

  • Dry mouth

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Loss of appetite

  • Unexplained weight gain

Correct answer: Dry mouth

Dry mouth is a sign of diabetes mellitus. Other signs and symptoms of this condition include:

  • Hyperglycemia (elevated blood sugar)
  • Excessive hunger
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Elevated sugar in urine (glycosuria)
  • Excessive excretion of urine (polyuria)
  • Blurred vision
  • Headaches
  • Excessive thirst

187.

When performing aquatic exercises with a patient, it is important for the clinician to understand the basic physics of water. When treating a patient with edema, which of the following physics concepts is MOST relevant?

  • Hydrostatic pressure

  • Buoyancy

  • Density

  • Cohesion

Correct answer: Hydrostatic pressure

Hydrostatic pressure is the circumferential water pressure exerted on an immersed body or body part, which reduces edema and enhances peripheral circulation. A pressure gradient is established between the surface water and deeper waters due to the increased density in the deeper water. Pascal's law states that the pressure exerted on an immersed body part is equal on all surfaces. Increased pressure reduces edema and enhances peripheral circulation.

Buoyancy is helpful in that it creates an apparent decrease in body weight and joint unloading due to the upward force of water on the immersed body part(s). This decrease in body weight is equal to the weight of the water that it displaces. Density is the mass per unit volume of a substance; the density of water is proportional to its depth, because deeper water must support the water above it. Cohesion is the tendency of water molecules to adhere to each other and causes a feeling of resistance when moving through water.

188.

Where is the auscultation landmark for the mitral valve located?

  • Over the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

  • Over the second right intercostal space at the sternal border

  • Over the second left intercostal space at the sternal border

  • Over the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border

Correct answer: Over the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Both PTs and PTAs should be familiar with appropriate ways to measure vital signs, such as heart rate and pulse. The auscultation landmark for the mitral valve is at the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. 

The auscultation landmark for the tricuspid valve is at the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border. The auscultation landmark for the pulmonic valve is at the second left intercostal space at the sternal border. The auscultation landmark for the aortic valve is at the second right intercostal space at the sternal border.

189.

A patient is being observed by the PTA during gait. The patient demonstrates a narrow base of support with a decreased arm swing and festination of gait. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present?

  • Basal ganglia lesion

  • Cerebellar lesion

  • Complete spinal cord injury

  • Right hemisphere stroke

Correct answer: Basal ganglia lesion

Basal ganglia lesions often lead to patients maintaining a narrow base of support, festinating, maintaining a decreased arm swing and trunk rotation, as well as dyskinesia during gait.

Cerebellar lesions often lead to a wide base of support with arms in high guard and discoordination of swing and stance phase. A complete spinal cord injury will often require bracing or assistive devices to walk, depending on the involved level. A right hemisphere stroke will often cause a hemiplegic gait on the left side. 

190.

A patient suffered a spinal cord injury in the cervical spine. Which of the following is most likely TRUE in this scenario?

  • The injury occurred due to combined flexion and rotation

  • The patient will have limited upper and lower body sequela

  • The patient will have fewer symptoms when compared to a person with a lumbar spinal cord injury

  • The patient will likely ambulate without an assistive device

Correct answer: The injury occurred due to combined flexion and rotation

The most common mechanism of injury for cervical spine injuries is combined flexion and rotation. 

Patients with injuries to the cervical spine tend to have both upper and lower body symptoms, and these tend to be more numerous than those suffered by people with lumbar spinal cord injuries. It is impossible to say whether or not this patient will require an assistive device to ambulate without having more clinical data available.

191.

When a muscle is weakened or impaired, a patient may naturally compensate using muscle substitutions. When pectoralis major is weak, which of the following muscles is the patient MOST likely to use to compensate?

  • Coracobrachialis

  • Scapular stabilizers

  • Lateral trunk muscles

  • Latissimus dorsi

Correct answer: Coracobrachialis

When a patient's pectoralis major is weak, and the patient is having difficulty with shoulder flexion, they will likely compensate with coracobrachialis, the long head of biceps, and anterior deltoid.

When a patient's shoulder abductors are weak, they will likely compensate with scapular stabilizers. When a patient's hip abductors are weak, they will likely compensate with the lateral trunk muscles or tensor fascia latae (TFL). When the hip flexors are weak, the patient will likely compensate with latissimus dorsi, the lower abdominals, lower obliques, and hip adductors.

192.

A PTA enters a patient's room and notices that the patient's chest tube is no longer connected. After activating the emergency alert system, what action should the PTA take?

  • Place gauze over the opening after the patient takes a complete breath out

  • Tell the patient to breathe in and hold their breath for as long as possible

  • Tell the patient to take shallow breaths

  • Reconnect the tube quickly

Correct answer: Place gauze over the opening after the patient takes a complete breath out

A disconnected chest tube requires emergency intervention. The PTA should triage the issue by using gloved hands and/or gauze to cover the opening after the patient has emptied their lungs.

193.

A patient arrives at your PT clinic demonstrating signs and symptoms indicative of a serious nerve injury. Which traumatic nerve injury is characterized by severance of the nerve and connective tissues, resulting in the complete loss of nerve function?

  • Neurotmesis

  • Axonotmesis

  • Neurapraxia

  • Radiculopathy

Correct answer: Neurotmesis 

Neurotmesis, the complete severance of a nerve, including the axon/myelin and all connective tissue structures to include epineurium. It results in a complete loss of nerve function, and requires surgical intervention. This condition has a guarded prognosis even with surgery.

Axonotmesis is the focal damage to the axon/myelin and varying degrees of peripheral nerve connective tissue. Neurapraxia is a traumatic nerve injury often related to compressive forces, such as carpal tunnel syndrome. Radiculopathy is not a distinct type of traumatic nerve injury but references the involvement of nerve roots.

194.

A patient is recovering from a coma and currently has a score of 6/15. Which of the following is TRUE of the Glasgow coma scale?

  • It measures 3 different categories

  • A score of 0 is the lowest possible

  • A score of 6 indicates a mild brain injury

  • The scoring system is the same for everyone, regardless of age

Correct answer: It measures 3 different categories

The Glasgow coma scale measures motor response, verbal response, and eye-opening ability. The scale runs from 3 to 15. A score of 6 indicates a severe brain injury. Patients under the age of five need a modified scoring system to account for decreased verbal capability.

195.

A PTA is educating a patient about his recent cardiovascular assessments. Which of the following is TRUE of cardiac output?

  • This is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles each minute

  • This is usually about 10 liters per minute in adults

  • This is measured in beats per minute

  • This is usually presented as a percentage value

Correct answer: This is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles each minute

Cardiac output, CO, is usually measured in liters, and most adults will generally have a CO of 4-6 liters per minute. 

Heart rate is measured in beats per minute. Ejection fraction is usually presented as a percentage value.

196.

A physician has ordered the PT and PTA to use an ultrasound to drive medications through the skin into the deeper soft tissues. Which treatment modality does this describe?

  • Phonophoresis

  • Indirect contact

  • Direct contact

  • Cavitation

Correct answer: Phonophoresis

Phonophoresis is ultrasound that helps with the absorption of medications into the skin and deeper tissues. Local pain relievers and anti-inflammatory drugs are often used with phonophoresis, such as lidocaine, dexamethasone, and salicylates.

An ultrasound performed with indirect contact utilizes water immersion. In an ultrasound performed with direct contact, the transducer interfaces directly with the skin. Cavitation is a physiological effect of ultrasound.

197.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

  • It is linked to obesity and often occurs in older adults.

  • It usually occurs in children and young adults.

  • It is insulin-dependent.

  • Patients with the condition are prone to ketoacidosis.

Correct answer: It is linked to obesity and often occurs in older adults.

Type 2, or adult-onset, diabetes mellitus results from inadequate utilization of insulin and progressive beta cell dysfunction. Type 2 diabetes mellitus accounts for 90-95% of diabetic cases and is usually not insulin-dependent. Many patients with type 2 diabetes are obese and/or older adults.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is also known as insulin-dependent and juvenile-onset diabetes. It is characterized by a decrease in size and number of islet cells, which results in a deficiency in insulin secretion. Patients with type 1 diabetes are usually children or young adults and are prone to ketoacidosis.

198.

In the rehab setting, what does RICE stand for? 

  • R- rest, I- ice, C- compression, E- elevation

  • R- range of motion, I- ice, C- compression, E- elevation

  • R- rest, I- immobilize, C- compression, E- elevation

  • R- rest, I- ice, C- compression, E- exercise

Correct answer: R- rest, I- ice, C- compression, E- elevation 

Patients in the acute inflammatory phase often have pain at rest. In order to control the inflammatory response, patients should follow the RICE protocol, which stands for rest, ice, compression, and elevation. These strategies will help to reduce edema, prevent effusion, and prevent further injury.

199.

A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who recently had a stroke (CVA). The plan of care includes motorized treadmill training. Which of the following guidelines is MOST likely appropriate for this patient?

  • 20-30 minute duration

  • 20% body weight support

  • Low frequency (2 days a week at most)

  • Focus on sufficient endurance to be able to walk for 4 hours continuously

Correct answer: 20-30 minute duration

Motorized treadmill training with partial bodyweight support is an early means of task training for patients following a stroke. This intervention should be performed for a moderate duration (20-30 minutes).

This type of treadmill training should proceed from having approximately 40% body weight support to less support over time, eventually removing all support. It should be performed at a high frequency (3-5 days per week). It is unrealistic to expect a patient who had a recent stroke to walk for 4 hours continuously. 

200.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following treatments would be LEAST appropriate for the PT to teach to this patient’s caregivers for discharge?

  • Joint manipulation

  • Manual stretching

  • Proper positioning for sitting and lying

  • Safe handling techniques

Correct answer: Joint manipulation

Joint manipulation techniques require significant skill and should only be performed by qualified professionals. For patients with spina bifida, this treatment may not even be appropriate in most cases anyway, as some of the flaccid joints involved could be damaged by the treatment. 

Positioning, stretching, and handling should all be learned and practiced by caregivers prior to discharge.

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