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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 3 of 50

41.

Which of the following options is an appropriate physical therapy goal during the functional restoration phase of healing from a musculoskeletal injury?

  • Functional stabilization of the involved joint

  • Biomechanical reeducation

  • Endurance exercise

  • Postural reeducation

Correct answer: Functional stabilization of the involved joint

Functional stabilization of the involved joint is an appropriate goal for the functional restoration phase of healing from a musculoskeletal injury.

Biomechanical and postural reeducation, endurance/flexibility/coordination exercise, and joint modification are all appropriate interventions during the subacute phase of healing, not the functional restoration phase.

42.

A PTA is working with a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury. When the PTA enters the room, he notes that the Foley catheter bag is nearly full. Apart from patient comfort, why is this a concern?

  • A full catheter can lead to autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injuries

  • The weight from the catheter bag can pull on the patient, leading to potential seizure

  • A patient with a spinal cord injury should not be urinating this much

  • The smell of urine can trigger a type of allergic reaction in some patients with spinal cord injuries

Correct answer: A full catheter can lead to autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injuries

Patients with higher level spinal cord injuries (above T6) are at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. One of the most common causes of this issue is a full catheter, or one that is blocked.

43.

A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who has paraplegia with some sensation and mixed motor function below the level of the lesion. What is the MOST likely injury?

  • Incomplete spinal cord injury at T11

  • Incomplete spinal cord injury at L4

  • Complete spinal cord injury at C5

  • Incomplete spinal cord injury at C4

Correct answer: Incomplete spinal cord injury at T11

A client with paraplegia with some sensation and mixed motor function below the level of the lesion has an incomplete lesion between levels T1 and T12-L1. Of the available options, T11 is the only one that meets these criteria. Paraplegia involves both lower extremities, and an incomplete lesion has preservation of some sensory or motor function below the level of injury. 

Quadriplegia involves all four extremities and the trunk, and occurs with an injury between C1 and C8. A complete cord injury results in no sensory or motor function below the level of the lesion. Injuries to L4 are extremely unlikely to cause paraplegia.

44.

When testing a patient's cranial nerves, the PT notes that the pupils dilate in response to a light shining in their eye. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this finding?

  • This is an abnormal finding

  • This is a normal finding

  • This indicates a lesion of cranial nerve V

  • This indicates a lesion of cranial nerve I

Correct answer: This is an abnormal finding

When light is shined in the eye, the pupil should constrict. Likewise, when light is taken away from the eye, the pupil should dilate. This is the normal response, which requires coordination between cranial nerves II and III. 

Cranial nerve V is responsible for facial sensation, while cranial nerve I is responsible for the sense of smell.

45.

A PTA is preparing to perform joint mobilizations on a patient. Which of the following findings serves as a contraindication for joint mobilizations?

  • Hypermobility in involved joint

  • Healing fracture

  • Pain

  • Limited ROM

Correct answer: Hypermobility in involved joint

There are a number of contraindications and precautions for joint mobilization. Hypermobility in the joint in question is a contraindication. 

A healing fracture is a precaution. Pain is an indication. Limited ROM is an indication.

46.

A patient reports that he woke up one morning and could barely move his arms. The weakness has persisted for the past few days. Upon examination in the hospital, he was found to have suffered demyelination in various peripheral nerves. 

Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

  • Guillain-Barré syndrome

  • Multiple sclerosis

  • Postpolio syndrome

  • Myasthenia gravis

Correct answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rapid demyelinating disorder that leads to weakness. 

MS is a demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system, but it tends to have a slower course. Postpolio syndrome is a disorder that causes weakness but only occurs in those who previously had polio, generally more than 15 years prior. Myasthenia Gravis is a neuromuscular junction disorder that causes weakness, but it is not demyelinating.

47.

A patient demonstrates signs of lower motor neuron lesions. Which of the following conditions causes lower motor neuron lesions?

  • Guillain-Barré syndrome

  • Stroke

  • Brain injury

  • Spinal cord injury

Correct answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

Guillain-Barré syndrome causes lower motor neuron lesions, whereas strokes, spinal cord injuries, and brain injuries cause upper motor neuron lesions. 

48.

A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient who has complaints of difficulty reaching his car seat belt while using his right shoulder and riding as a passenger. The PTA incorporates PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) diagonal patterns into treatment in order to facilitate improved shoulder mobility. This seat belt is a sash type that goes over the shoulder and trunk of the occupant.

Which PNF pattern is MOST appropriate?

  • D2F

  • D2E

  • D1F

  • D1E

Correct answer: D2F

D2F (diagonal 2 flexion) for the upper extremity involves flexion-abduction-external rotation of the shoulder. The therapist cues the patient to "open your hand, turn, and lift your arm up and out." This motion closely facilitates the movement to reach for a seatbelt in the car.

D1F (diagonal 1 flexion) for the upper extremity involves flexion-adduction-external rotation of the shoulder. D2E (diagonal 2 extension) for the upper extremity involves extension-adduction-internal rotation of the shoulder. D1E (diagonal 1 extension) for the upper extremity involves extension-abduction-internal rotation of the shoulder.

49.

Which of the following is TRUE of elevated wheelchair leg rests?

  • They are contraindicated for patients with hamstring tightness

  • They may be detachable

  • They facilitate ease in transfers

  • They facilitate a front approach to the wheelchair when ambulating

Correct answer: They are contraindicated for patients with hamstring tightness

Elevating leg rests are contraindicated with hamstring or flexor tightness. They are indicated for lower extremity edema control and for postural support.

Swing-away leg rests—not elevated leg rests—may be detachable. This facilitates ease in transfers and a front approach to the wheelchair when ambulating.

50.

The initial evaluation reveals a patient has an antalgic gait pattern. She has recently had a total knee replacement on her right lower extremity and is full weight-bearing. Which gait deviation can be expected?

  • Stance time is abbreviated on the right leg, with a shortened step length on the left leg

  • Stance time is abbreviated on the right leg, with a shortened step length on the right leg

  • Stance time is abbreviated on the left leg, with a shortened step length on the left leg

  • Stance time is abbreviated on the left leg, with a shortened step length on the right leg

Correct answer: Stance time is abbreviated on the right leg, with a shortened step length on the left leg 

An antalgic gait pattern is a painful gait pattern. The stance time is shortened on the painful limb, resulting in uneven stepping and an uneven gait pattern. The uninvolved leg has a shortened step length since it needs to bear weight sooner than normal. For a patient with a right total knee replacement, the right lower extremity is the painful limb. The right leg has a shortened stance time, and the left leg has a shortened step length.

51.

A PTA is working with a patient who has deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which of the following statements is TRUE of this condition?

  • It is characterized by clot formation.

  • It is often associated with metabolic syndrome.

  • In late stages, patients may exhibit hair loss, and skin and nail changes.

  • It is a chronic condition.

Correct answer: It is characterized by clot formation.

Deep vein thrombophlebitis is characterized by clot formation and acute inflammation in a deep vein. It usually occurs in the lower extremity and is associated with immobilization.

The remaining options describe occlusive peripheral artery disease, not deep vein thrombophlebitis. Occlusive peripheral artery disease is the chronic, occlusive disease of medium- and large-sized vessels as the result of peripheral atherosclerosis. Unlike deep vein thrombophlebitis, it is often associated with cerebrovascular disease, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and a history of smoking. In late stages, patients exhibit rest pain, muscle atrophy, and trophic changes such as hair loss, skin changes, and nail changes. It primarily affects the lower extremities.

52.

A PT is taking a blood pressure on a patient at rest. The patient's blood pressure reads 190/120. The patient is calm and does not look to be in distress. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action by the PT?

  • Allow the patient to rest for a minute, then retake the blood pressure, activating the emergency response if it remains so high

  • Initiate the treatment session, then retake the blood pressure periodically to check for changes

  • Send the patient home and encourage them to rest

  • Offer the patient a drink and allow them to rest for a few minutes before starting the therapy session

Correct answer: Allow the patient to rest for a minute, then retake the blood pressure, activating the emergency response if it remains so high

A BP reading of over 180 systolic and 120 diastolic is considered a hypertensive crisis. This requires serious consideration, and the PT should be certain that he had an accurate measurement, then contact emergency services immediately.

53.

You are fitting a patient for a wheelchair. What is the standard seat height for an adult wheelchair?

  • 20 inches

  • 18.75 inches

  • 17.5 inches

  • 18.5 inches

Correct answer: 20 inches

The standard seat height for an adult wheelchair is 20 inches.

The standard seat height for a child's wheelchair is 18.75 inches. The standard seat height for a hemi/low seat wheelchair is 17.5 inches. The standard seat height for a junior wheelchair is 18.5 inches.

54.

A patient demonstrates bilateral pitting edema in the feet. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST likely?

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Peripheral vascular disease

  • Thrombophlebitis

  • Traumatic injury to one foot

Correct answer: Congestive heart failure

Bilateral edema is often associated with congestive heart failure. 

Local issues, such as peripheral vascular disease and thrombophlebitis, can cause unilateral edema, as can a traumatic injury to one foot.

55.

What percentage of pre-diabetic patients will convert to type 2 diabetes mellitus within ten years?

  • 10-15%

  • Approximately 25%

  • 5-10%

  • Approximately 75%

Correct answer: 10-15%

10-15% of pre-diabetic patients will convert to type 2 diabetes mellitus within ten years. Pre-diabetes is defined as impaired glucose tolerance with an abnormal response to an oral glucose test.

56.

A physical therapist assistant is examining an infant's reflexes. The clinician strokes the perioral region of the patient's face. Which reflex is being tested?

  • Rooting

  • Suck-swallow

  • Moro

  • Babinski

Correct answer: Rooting

The rooting reflex is an important reflex for early feeding, especially for breastfeeding. In a normal finding, when the side of the baby's cheek (perioral area) is stroked or brushed, the head turns toward the touch and the mouth opens.

The suck reflex is tested by touching the infant's lips, tongue, and palate. When testing the Moro reflex, the clinician suddenly extends the infant's neck; this should result in flexion, shoulder abduction, and elbow extension, followed by shoulder adduction and elbow flexion. This may also make the infant start crying. The Babinski reflex is tested by stroking the lateral aspect of the plantar surface of the foot; it (initially) results in extension and fanning of the toes.

57.

A PT assesses an 80-year-old patient using the dynamic gait index. The patient scores an 18 on the test. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this score?

  • This patient is at increased risk for falling

  • This patient achieved the highest score possible on this test, indicating she is safe for community ambulation

  • This patient achieved the highest possible score on this test, indicating she is at an increased risk for early death due to immobility

  • This patient should use a single-point cane based on this score

Correct answer: This patient is at increased risk for falling

Scores below 19 put patients at increased risk for falls, especially those of advanced age. A score of 24 is the highest score, indicating less risk for falls, but a score between 22-24 is acceptable.

There is no way to say, based on the information given, which type of assistive device this patient should use, if she should use one at all.

58.

Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?

  • Hypertension

  • Low fiber diet

  • Advanced age

  • History of hernia surgery

Correct answer: Hypertension

Risk factors for stroke include hypertension, atherosclerosis, history of heart disease, diabetes and other metabolic conditions, and history of previous TIA.

59.

A patient arrives at the PT clinic with a diagnosis of shoulder dislocation. Which of the following dislocation directions is MOST likely?

  • Anterior-inferior

  • Posterior

  • Superior

  • Superior-posterior

Correct answer: Anterior-inferior

Anterior-inferior dislocations of the GH joint are more common than other directions of dislocation. This is due to the stability in this direction. This type of dislocation is caused by abduction and forceful external rotation.

60.

Which degenerative disease of the central nervous system is characterized as a basal ganglia disorder with dopamine deficiency?

  • Parkinson's disease 

  • Multiple sclerosis 

  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 

  • ALS 

Correct answer: Parkinson's disease

Parkinson's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative disease of the CNS. It is a basal ganglia disorder characterized by dopamine deficiency and degeneration of the substantia nigra. Patients present with rigidity, bradykinesia, resting tremor, and impaired postural reflexes.

Multiple sclerosis is a degenerative disease of the CNS characterized by chronic, progressive demyelinating lesions that impair neural transmission and cause nerves to fatigue rapidly. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a progressive upper and lower motor neuron disease in which the muscle fibers atrophy from peripheral nerve involvement. Degeneration and scarring of the motor neurons occur in the lateral aspect of the spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebral cortex. ALS is a motor neuron disorder.

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