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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 4 of 50

61.

Which of the following statistics tools can be used to determine whether or not age can be indicative of a patient's blood glucose levels?

  • Linear regression

  • Reliability 

  • Validity

  • Control

Correct answer: Linear regression

Linear regression can be used to show a relationship between variables, which allows for future predictions. Whether or not age can be indicative of blood glucose levels is a question that could be answered through linear regression.

Reliability refers to how close scores on a test are to other scores on the test. Validity refers to how close scores on a test are to the gold standard. Control refers to efforts taken to reduce influence of other variables on the dependent variable besides the independent variable.

62.

While treating a patient with a wound that exhibits a large amount of exudate, the PTA applies a soft, nonwoven dressing derived from seaweed. What type of dressing is this?

  • Alginate

  • Hydrogel

  • Foam

  • Hydrocolloid

Correct answer: Alginate

Alginates are soft, absorbent, nonwoven dressings derived from seaweed and often used for wounds with moderate to large amounts of exudate. Alginates react with wound exudate to form a viscous hydrophilic gel mass over the wound area. They are able to absorb up to 20 times their weight in drainage.

Hydrogels are water- or glycerine-based gels insoluble in water. They are used for partial- and full-thickness wounds and those with necrosis and slough. Foams are semipermeable membranes that are either hydrophilic or hydrophobic. They vary in thickness, absorptive capacity, and adhesive properties, and they are indicated for partial- and full-thickness wounds with minimal or moderate exudate. Hydrocolloids are adhesive wafers that contain absorptive particles that interact with wound fluid to form a gelatinous mass over the wound bed. They are indicated for protection of partial-thickness wounds and wounds with mild exudate, maintaining a moist wound environment.

63.

A therapist is working on the gross motor development of a seven-month-old baby. In this session, she plans to work on the infant's head control. The baby has known reflux, and her mother states that she has just given her a bottle prior to starting the session.

What is the MOST appropriate position for the infant during this session to both work on head control and decrease the chances of discomfort due to reflux?

  • Sitting upright in the mother's lap

  • Prone over an exercise ball

  • Supine

  • Standing unsupported

Correct answer: Sitting upright in the mother's lap

This infant has just eaten and has known reflux. Therefore, to avoid reflux of gastric contents, the therapist should keep the trunk upright to allow proper gastric emptying. By remaining supported in the mother's lap, the infant's head control is challenged while the infant is safely seated.

Positioning the baby either prone over an exercise ball or in a supine position would promote reflux. In addition, a supine position would support the head, rather than requiring the infant to work in order to improve head control. Unsupported standing is not feasible for this patient because seven-month-old babies do not have the developmental skills to stand unsupported.

64.

A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection of the urinary tract with microorganisms. Which of the following options is an infection of the bladder?

  • Cystitis

  • Pyelonephritis

  • Urethritis

  • Upper UTI

Correct answer: Cystitis

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) can involve the lower and/or upper part of the urinary tract. Cystitis and urethritis are lower UTIs. These conditions are usually secondary to ascending urinary tract infections, and they may also involve the kidneys and ureters. 

Upper UTIs, such as pyelonephritis, are generally more serious than lower UTIs. Urethritis is inflammation and infection of the urethra. Pyelonephritis is inflammation and infection of one or both kidneys.

65.

What is the term for the excessive excretion of urine, which is a classic symptom of diabetes mellitus?

  • Polyuria

  • Hyperuria

  • Glycosuria

  • Hypouria

Correct answer: Polyuria

Polyuria, which is the excessive excretion of urine, is a classic symptom of diabetes mellitus.

Other common signs and symptoms include polydipsia (excessive thirst), glycosuria (elevated sugar in the urine), hyperglycemia (elevated blood sugar), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Hypouria and hyperuria are not recognized terms in this context.

66.

A PT is assessing a patient's functional balance. During the test, the patient is able to balance without holding on to anything during static balance but sways slightly. He is also able to maintain his balance when picking up an object from the floor. 

How should the PT grade this patient's balance capabilities based on the information given?

  • Good

  • Fair

  • Poor

  • Normal

Correct answer: Good

A patient with "good" functional balance should be able to maintain their balance without holding on while standing in a static position, should be able to accept a "moderate" challenge to their balance, and should be able to keep their balance while picking up an object from the floor. However, this is not considered "normal," as patients with normal balance should be able to shift weight in all directions with a full range of motion from their trunk and extremities. Also, those with normal balance should not sway in static standing.

Fair balance indicates that patients may need to hold on for minimal support at times during static balance, and they can only turn their head and trunk to maintain dynamic balance. Poor balance means that the patient must hold on during static balance with maximal assistance, and they cannot accept any challenge to their balance.

67.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following would likely be the MOST appropriate cardiovascular starting point, based on this patient’s current level of fitness?

  • Interval training with a passive rest interval

  • Low intensity-long duration steady state training

  • HIIT training

  • Circuit training

Correct answer: Interval training with a passive rest interval

Based on this patient's low level of fitness, it would be very unlikely that she would be able to maintain exercise for a long duration, complete high-intensity interval training, or circuit training combining multiple modes of exercise in order to stress both the cardiovascular and musculoskeletal system. 

Interval training with short work intervals and passive rest intervals would give this patient appropriate periods of recovery before the next bout of exercise.

68.

Which of the following is a characteristic of SEROUS wound exudate?

  • Watery serum

  • Containing blood

  • Containing pus

  • Containing eschar

Correct answer: Watery serum

When assessing wounds, therapists should pay close attention to the type of wound exudate (drainage). Serous drainage is a watery serum.

Sanguineous drainage contains blood. Purulent drainage contains pus. Eschar is dried necrotic tissue.

69.

A physical therapist assistant is preparing to work with a patient who has suffered a traumatic brain injury. The evaluation states the patient is a level III on the Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Function (LOCF).

What can the therapist expect of this patient?

  • The patient may follow simple commands, such as squeezing the hand or closing the eyes, in an inconsistent and delayed manner.

  • The patient will be completely unresponsive to stimulation.

  • The patient will exhibit bizarre behavior and will be unable to cooperate directly with treatment efforts.

  • The patient will be oriented within the hospital and home settings but will have limited recall and impaired judgment.

Correct answer: The patient may follow simple commands, such as squeezing the hand or closing the eyes, in an inconsistent and delayed manner.

A patient who rates level III on the Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning (LOCF) may follow simple commands, such as squeezing the hand or closing the eyes, in an inconsistent and delayed manner.

The LOCF outlines the sequence of cognitive and behavioral recovery from a traumatic brain injury. Typically, patients progress through each of the eight levels in sequence and can plateau at any point. The levels are as follows: 

  • Level I: No response. The patient appears asleep and does not react to external stimuli.
  • Level II: Generalized response. The patient reacts to external stimuli in a nonspecific and inconsistent manner with limited responses.
  • Level III: Localized response. The patient responds to stimuli specifically and inconsistently, but may follow simple commands.
  • Level IV: Confused-agitated. The patient exhibits bizarre, incoherent, or inappropriate behaviors, has no short-term recall, and limited attention.
  • Level V: Confused-inappropriate. The patient gives random, fragmented, and nonpurposeful responses to complex stimuli. Simple commands are followed consistently, memory and selective intention are impaired, and new information is not retained.
  • Level VI: Confused-appropriate. The patient gives context-appropriate responses, and is dependent upon external input for direction. There is carry-over for relearned but not new tasks, and recent memory problems persist.
  • Level VII: Automatic-appropriate. The patient behaves appropriately in familiar settings, performs daily routines, and shows carry-over for new learning at a lower than normal rate. They initiate social interaction but exhibit impaired judgement.
  • Level VIII: Purposeful and appropriate. The patient is oriented and responds to the environment. Their abstract reasoning abilities are decreased relative to premorbid levels.

70.

A patient demonstrates ankle pain and instability after rolling it during a soccer game. Which of the following findings would indicate that the patient should be referred out for x-rays?

  • Tenderness on the bottommost portion of the lateral malleolus

  • Ligament laxity noted on one or more sides of the joint

  • Quickened pulse at the posterior tibial artery

  • Tenderness on the anterior tibia 7 cm proximal from the tip of the medial malleolus

Correct answer: Tenderness on the bottommost portion of the lateral malleolus

The Ottowa foot and ankle rules help to determine, through physical exam, whether a patient should be referred for x-rays. The rules for the ankle state that if someone has any of the following, they should be referred out:

  • Tenderness on posterior lateral malleolus extending 6cm proximal
  • Tenderness on medial malleolus extending 6cm proximal
  • Unable to take at least 4 steps immediately after injury or in ER

71.

Where is the auscultation landmark for the pulmonic valve located?

  • Over the second left intercostal space at the sternal border

  • Over the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border

  • Over the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

  • Over the second right intercostal space at the sternal border

Correct answer: Over the second left intercostal space at the sternal border

Both PTs and PTAs should be familiar with appropriate ways to measure vital signs, such as heart rate and pulse. The auscultation landmark for the pulmonic valve is at the second left intercostal space at the sternal border. 

The auscultation landmark for the mitral valve is at the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. The auscultation landmark for the tricuspid valve is at the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border. The auscultation landmark for the aortic valve is at the second right intercostal space at the sternal border.

72.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

While assessing this patient, you note that he is leaning very far to his right while in the chair, and he does the same thing when you test his standing balance and ambulation. Which of the following would BEST describe this finding?

  • Pusher syndrome

  • Ataxia

  • Locked-in syndrome

  • Genu recurvatum

Correct answer: Pusher syndrome

Pusher (or Pusher's) syndrome is a condition in which the patient is constantly overusing their strong side and pushing toward their weak side. This can cause loss of balance and difficulty ambulating. 

Ataxia is discoordination. Locked-in syndrome is a condition where the patient is unable to move, except for certain motions of the eyes, but is conscious. Genu recurvatum is knee hyperextension.

73.

Motor control strategies may be used as an intervention for patients with neurological dysfunction. In this context, what is a motor program?

  • A set of prestructured muscle commands

  • An overall strategy for movement

  • Afferent information sent by various sensory receptors to control centers

  • A section of the plan of care describing what types of motor control strategies will be utilized

Correct answer: A set of prestructured muscle commands

A motor program is a set of prestructured muscle commands that, when initiated, results in a specific coordinated movement sequence. These commands can be carried out largely uninfluenced by peripheral feedback.

A motor plan is an overall strategy for movement, i.e., an action sequence requiring the coordination of various motor programs. Feedback is afferent information sent by various sensory receptors to control centers, updating those control centers about the correctness of movement while it progresses. These terms refer to interventions and learning strategies, not documentation such as the plan of care.

74.

A patient arrives at the PT clinic complaining of foot pain after a fall. Which of the following findings would indicate that this patient should be referred for x-rays?

  • Tenderness to palpation at the base of the fifth metatarsal

  • Tenderness on the plantar surface of the cuboid

  • Tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal

  • Inability to dorsiflex ankle to at least 10 degrees

Correct answer: Tenderness to palpation at the base of the fifth metatarsal

The Ottawa Foot and Ankle Rules are used to determine whether or not a patient needs to be referred out for imaging. If any of the following findings are present, the patient should be referred out:

  • Tenderness to palpation at the base of the fifth metatarsal
  • Tenderness to palpation at the navicular
  • Unable to take at least 4 steps after injury or in ER

75.

Which metabolic hormone is secreted by the delta cells of the pancreatic islets?

  • Somatostatin

  • Insulin

  • Amylin

  • Glucagon

Correct answer: Somatostatin

Somatostatin acts locally to depress secretion of both insulin and glycogen, and decreases the motility, secretion, and absorption of the gastrointestinal tract. It is secreted by the delta cells.

Amylin is secreted by the beta cells and modulates the rate of nutrient delivery (gastric emptying) and suppresses the release of glucagon. Glucagon is secreted by the alpha cells and stimulates hepatic glucose production to raise glucose levels, especially when in a fasting state. Insulin is secreted by the beta cells and allows the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream and suppresses hepatic glucose production, lowering plasma glucose levels.

76.

A 75-year-old patient suffered an injury by falling forward onto an outstretched upper extremity, resulting in the posterior displacement of a bone fragment. What is the LIKELY injury?

  • Colles' fracture

  • Smith's fracture

  • Scaphoid fracture

  • Boxer's fracture

Correct answer: Colles' fracture

Colles' fracture is the most common type of wrist fracture, resulting from a fall onto an outstretched upper extremity. It results in a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity of the wrist and hand, due to the posterior displacement of a fragment of the radius.

Smith's fracture is similar to Colles' fracture, except that the distal fragment of the radius dislocates in a volar direction, causing a "garden spade" deformity. Scaphoid fractures may also result from a fall onto an outstretched upper extremity, but these are more commonly seen in younger patients. A boxer's fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal, and is frequently caused by punching.

77.

Your patient has left leg weakness due to a neurologic injury. You are teaching them to ascend stairs using a cane. What step pattern should this patient use?

  • Right leg ascends; cane and left leg ascend together

  • Cane and left leg ascend together; right leg ascends

  • Cane ascends; left leg ascends; right leg ascends

  • Right leg ascends; cane ascends; left leg ascends

Correct answer: Right leg ascends; cane and left leg ascend together

When teaching a patient to ascend stairs using a cane, the PTA should teach proper sequencing. The patient should ascend in the following pattern: uninvolved lower extremity (right leg), followed by the cane and the involved extremity (left leg) together. Depending on a patient's individual needs, the PT might implement a slightly different gait pattern. However, this is the standard prescription for the issue in question. 

When descending stairs, the patient should first move the assistive device. The involved extremity can either move with the cane or immediately after the cane. Finally, the uninvolved lower extremity descends.

78.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

You note a yellowish tint to the patient’s fingernails. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of this finding?

  • Cyanosis

  • Tobacco stain

  • Fungal infection

  • Tetracycline medication

Correct answer: Cyanosis

Tobacco, fungal infections, and tetracycline medications (along with some other medications) can cause yellowing of the fingernails. 

Cyanosis refers to a blue tint seen in the fingers.

79.

Conventional (high rate) of Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) is the most common mode of TENS. What is the pulse rate for this mode?

  • 80-110 pps

  • 80-150 pps

  • 50-100 pps

  • 1-5 pps

Correct answer: 80-110 pps

Conventional (high rate) TENS is applied with a pulse rate of 80-110, and a pulse duration of 50-100 msec.

Brief intense TENS is applied with a pulse rate of 80-150 pps. Burst-mode (pulse trains) TENS is applied with a pulse rate of 50-100 pps. Acupuncture-like (strong low rate) TENS and hyperstimulation (point stimulation) TENS are both applied with a pulse rate of 1-5 pps.

80.

A physical therapist assistant is teaching a patient to descend stairs using a cane. The patient has poor eccentric control of the left quadriceps. What is the appropriate way for the PTA to guard the patient?

  • By standing in front and slightly to the patient's left side

  • By standing directly to the patient's left side and holding their arm

  • By standing behind and slightly to the patient's left side

  • By standing directly in front of the patient

Correct answer: By standing in front and slightly to the patient's left side

Guarding is meant to protect the patient from falling when using an assistive device. During descent of stairs, the therapist should be in front (lower step) and slightly to the involved side. When ascending, the correct guarding position is always behind (lower step) and slightly on the involved side.

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