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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ISSA CPT Exam Questions

Page 8 of 58

141.

Which of the following is not a common technique error of the split squat jump?

  • Use both arms during the movement or none

  • Lunge position is too shallow

  • Remain on the ground for too long between jumps

Correct answer: Use both arms during the movement or none

Use both arms during the movement or none is correct because this is the correct arm action for this exercise. Only using one arm may add a rotational component to the exercise that results in not landing in the same place as the takeoff. An advanced version of this exercise can include switching leg positions in the air.

Lunge position is too shallow and remain on the ground for too long between jumps are incorrect because these are common errors for this plyometric exercise.

142.

Richard is a client with asthma. Which of the following is the best way to monitor this client's aerobic exercise intensity?

  • Rating of perceived exertion

  • Percentage of oxygen consumption

  • Percentage of one repetition maximum

Correct answer:Rating of perceived exertion

Rating of perceived exertion is correct because a client with asthma may have difficulty reaching target heart rates, and breathing under stress is difficult for them. As a result, exercise can also be monitored through a sense of the shortness of breath, such as the talk test. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasm, constriction of the bronchioles, or both.

Percentage of oxygen consumption is incorrect because clients with asthma often have difficulty reaching these targeted intensities. Percentage of one repetition maximum is incorrect because this is a measure of resistance exercise intensity.

143.

All of the following are major joint motions except:

  • Twisting

  • Rolling

  • Sliding

  • Spinning

Correct answer: Twisting

Joints are formed by one bone joining with another bone. Joints are categorized by their structure or their function. Arthrokinematics is the term used to describe joint motion. The three major joint motions are roll, slide, and spin.

  • Rolling: An example of a rolling movement is when the femoral condyles move over the tibial condyles during a squat.
  • Sliding: An example of a sliding movement is when, during a knee extension, the tibial condyles move across the femoral condyles.
  • Spinning: An example of a spinning movement is when the head of the radius rotates on the end of the humerus during both pronation and supination of the forearm.

144.

Which of the following accounts for the increase in strength during the first two months of beginning a resistance training program?

  • Neural factors

  • Increase in muscle size

  • Increased hormonal release

Correct answer: Neural factors

Neural factors is correct because improvement in skill in performing the resistance exercises causes increases in motor unit recruitment and firing rate. This is based on the differences in strength and muscle mass increases observed early in a training program and evidence of increased electromyography amplitude during maximal contractions. After two months, further increases in strength are believed to be due to increased muscle size.

Increase in muscle size is incorrect because little change in muscle size is seen during the first few months of resistance training. Increased hormonal release is incorrect because this adaptation occurs much later in training.

145.

Which of the following is not a stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

  • Recovery

  • Alarm

  • Adaptation

  • Exhaustion

Correct answer: Recovery

General adaptation syndrome (GAS) explains how the body responds to imposed demands as well as how it adapts to stress. Exercise places physical stress on the body; however, that stress allows the body to respond and adapt accordingly in three stages: the alarm stage, the resistance development stage, and the exhaustion stage.

The alarm stage, which lasts about 2 to 3 days, is where the initial reaction to the imposed demands of exercise takes place. This is where the initial neuromuscular adaptations of the body, such as improved coordination, occur.

The resistance development stage occurs when increased functional capacity takes place to adapt to the stressor, such as increasing motor unit recruitment. This adaptation means that the acute variables should be changed more frequently to continue with fitness improvement.

The exhaustion stage is when intolerable stressors produce fatigue. This leads to a breakdown in the system, or injury. In other words, stress continues beyond the body's ability to adapt, leading to potential physiological and structural breakdown, known as overtraining.

146.

Which of the following is a technique error that a client could mistakenly perform during the step-up exercise?

  • Pushing off with the foot on the floor to assist with the movement

  • Ensuring that the box height allows the lead knee to be level with the hips when the lead foot is placed on the box

  • Keeping the torso upright throughout the movement

Correct answer: Pushing off with the foot on the floor to assist with the movement

Pushing off with the foot on the floor to assist with the movement is correct because the rising to the step should occur entirely from the muscular action of the leg placed on the step. If a client cannot correct this error, either the step must be lowered or this exercise be discontinued. This is a lower body muscular strength exercise that targets the muscles of the hip and thigh.

Ensuring that the box height allows the lead knee to be level with the hips when the lead foot is placed on the box is incorrect because this is the standard step height for this exercise. Keeping the torso upright throughout the movement is incorrect because this ensures the correct muscles are targeted and no excess strain is placed on the spine.

147.

You are working with an advanced athlete whose primary goal is to increase lower body agility, coordination, and balance. Which of the following modes of cardiovascular exercise and parameters would be most appropriate for this client? 

  • Jump rope intervals for 30 seconds with 10 seconds of rest for 10 rounds 

  • Treadmill walking at a 10% grade and 3.5 MPH speed for 15 minutes

  • Rowing for 500 meters in under 2 minutes for 5 rounds with 1 minute of rest between rounds

  • Battle rope intervals for 15 seconds with 10 second breaks between rounds for 10 rounds 

Correct answer: Jump rope intervals for 30 seconds with 10 seconds of rest for 10 rounds

Jumping rope can increase agility, coordination, and balance. For an athlete focusing on these elements in the lower body, a jump rope workout as described is the best choice.

Walking on a treadmill can increase cardiorespiratory endurance, but it is unlikely to be intense enough for this client, nor would it help with agility. Battle ropes and rowing as described could be intense enough for this client, but they would do little to improve coordination, agility, and balance of the lower extremities. 

148.

Which of the following describes the thermic effect of food (TEF)?

  • The energy used to process and store food that is expended above the resting metabolic rate (RMR)

  • The energy used in physical activity that is expended above the resting metabolic rate (RMR)

  • The energy expended for basic body functions

  • The energy expended when processing macronutrients

Correct answer: The energy used to process and store food that is expended above the resting metabolic rate (RMR)

Estimated total energy expenditure (TEE) is defined as the amount of energy used in a typical day, on average. TEE can be determined by adding three different energy components:

  • Resting metabolic rate (RMR): The energy expended for basic body functions
  • Thermic effect of food (TEF): The energy used to process and store food that is expended above the RMR
  • Energy expended during physical activity: The energy used in physical activity that is expended above the RMR

149.

Which of the following endocrine responses occurs in reaction to a bout of aerobic exercise?

  • Increase in glucagon secretion, decrease in insulin secretion

  • Increase in insulin secretion, decrease in glucagon secretion

  • Decrease in both insulin and glucagon secretion

Correct answer: Increase in glucagon secretion, decrease in insulin secretion

Increase in glucagon secretion, decrease in insulin secretion is correct because an increase in glucagon secretion stimulates a conversion of glycogen to glucose to increase the glucose available to be transported into cells. Therefore, the increased transport of glucose to cells provided by insulin is not needed as much. Increased glucagon release also enhances fat breakdown in tissues and increases plasma fatty acids to be used in exercise metabolism.

150.

What is the recommended way for an individual to self-monitor?

  • Keeping a daily written record

  • Having daily conversations with their trainer

  • Engaging in positive self-talk regularly

  • Weekly goal writing

Correct answer: Keeping a daily written record

To improve coaching interventions that change behavior, Certified Personal Trainers need to identify appropriate behavior change techniques (BCTs).

Self-monitoring is an ideal BCT to ensure client consistency and adherence. It can be a simple record of exercise, water intake, or nutrition intake that helps the client bring their attention to their behavior. It can be in the form of a journal or notebook, an app, or a simple document.

151.

During the reverse crunch, which of the following is a common form mistake?

  • Swinging the legs

  • Keeping the back flat on the floor

  • Slowly lowering the hips

  • Arching the lower back

Correct answer: Swinging the legs

As a fitness professional, it is important to know common form mistakes and the cues to correct them for the exercises you have your client perform.

During the reverse crunch, a common form mistake is to swing the legs. Once the legs are lifted and the knees are bent at 90 degrees, they should not move. Instead, the core and hips move to bring the legs up and back. Swinging the legs increases the momentum, which can cause injury, and it also decreases the effectiveness of the exercise.

152.

Why should SAQ training be used with nonathletic clients?

  • It requires greater assimilation of the body's systems than steady-state training

  • It is more effective for weight loss than resistance training

  • It can be used in place of a warm-up to increase client enjoyment

  • It increases the likelihood of clients succeeding in athletic pursuits

Correct answer: It requires greater assimilation of the body's systems than steady-state training

SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) training involves various systems and increases neural response with rapid adaptation that is not found in steady-state cardiorespiratory training.

This supports recovery, prevents injury, and improves quality of life for all clients, regardless of their goals.

It may be effective for weight-loss clients but should not be used without resistance training or in place of a warm-up.

153.

In SMART goals, how is "realistic" defined?

  • The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal

  • The trainer is sure the client can achieve the goal

  • This type of goal is completely new to the client

  • The goal is something the client is capable of doing

Correct answer: The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal

The goal must be attainable, but it must also be a goal that the client is willing to pursue. If the trainer sets the goal without consulting the client about their willingness, it is likely that there will be less success with that goal than with one that the trainer and client work together to create.

The trainer should not underestimate the client's ability to assess whether the goal is realistic. If the client has achieved a similar goal in the past, there is a higher chance that the goal is realistic.

154.

What is the best way to monitor aerobic exercise intensity in individuals with asthma?

  • Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

  • %VO2max

  • Based on the individual's max heart rate

  • Target heart rate

Correct answer: Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

Asthmatic individuals may experience shortness of breath (dyspnea) with increasing intensity and duration of exercise. They may unable to reach a target heart rate or a specific percentage of their VO2max due to the onset of dyspnea. Therefore, measuring heart rate is a poor method of determining an appropriate intensity level.

However, aerobic exercise can help improve their breathing and increase their aerobic capacity and endurance. Therefore, it's important to be able to safely monitor intensity. This can be done using the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale. On a scale of 6 to 20, asthmatic individuals should aim for an RPE of 11 to 13 during aerobic exercise.

An asthmatic individual can also monitor their intensity based on their shortness of breath and maintain an intensity low enough to prevent respiratory distress but high enough to provide sufficient stimulus for improvement.

155.

Which of the following physiologic changes would be expected in a client who participates in a program that heavily emphasizes aerobic exercise?

  • An increase in the size and number of type I muscle fibers

  • A decrease in the size and number of type I muscle fibers

  • A significant improvement in muscular strength throughout the body

  • A conversion of type II muscle fibers into type I fibers

Correct answer: An increase in the size and number of type I muscle fibers

With regular aerobic exercise, type I muscle fibers throughout the body must adapt by increasing in both number and size. These fibers allow for more endurance capabilities than do type II fibers.

After a certain point, muscular strength can only be appreciably increased through programs that emphasize resistance training. Type II muscle fibers cannot be converted to type I fibers.

156.

Which of the following best describes osteopenia?

  • Loss of bone density

  • Age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass

  • Loss of motor control

  • A chronic skeletal disorder

Correct answer: Loss of bone density

Osteopenia refers to the loss of bone density. It is more common in adult females and often increases in aging. Osteopenia increases the likelihood of fracture as well as other acute and chronic skeletal disorders, such as osteoporosis. Resistance training and SAQ training have been found to help slow this process.

157.

A client needs to decrease his resistance training frequency in the upcoming two months due to work commitments. What is the minimum number of training sessions that this client should perform during this time in order to maintain strength and power levels?

  • One to two per week

  • Three to four per week

  • One to two per month

Correct answer: One to two per week

One to two per week is correct because this amount of training is enough to maintain improvements in strength and power. One to two sessions must, however, train each body part at least once for maintenance to occur. In clients that have very low strength levels or training statuses, this may even be enough of a stimulus to continue adaptation.

Three to four per week is incorrect because this is more training that what is needed for maintenance. One to two per month is incorrect because this is less training than what is required for strength and power maintenance.

158.

Which of the following areas of the body are held by the hands to properly perform the lying knee-to-chest stretch?

  • Back of the knee

  • Top of the knee

  • Mid-shin

Correct answer: Back of the knee

Back of the knee is correct because this allows the client to pull the thigh closer to the torso in order to stretch the muscles that surround the hip joint without putting undue pressure on the knee joint. The lying knee-to-chest stretch targets the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and erector spinae muscles. This is a static stretch exercise.

Top of the knee is incorrect because this can target the quadriceps and place stress on the knee joint; it is a common error for this exercise. Mid-shin is incorrect because this would cause the shoulders to round and torso to flex, a common error for this exercise.

159.

All of the following exercises are appropriate for a pregnant client except:

  • Ball cobra

  • Single-leg balance

  • Push-to-pull

  • Overhead squat

Correct answer: Ball cobra

Regular exercise before, during, and after pregnancy has been shown to be beneficial in many ways for people who can become pregnant. However, exercises that place a pregnant client in a prone or supine position should be avoided, especially with a client in their first trimester. Appropriate exercises for a pregnant client include single-leg balance, push-to-pull, and overhead squat.

160.

When does protein become a significant fuel source?

  • During starvation

  • During protein synthesis

  • During high-intensity exercise

  • During steady-state exercise

Correct answer: During starvation

Carbohydrates, fats, and protein are the chemical energy for humans. All biochemical reactions in the body require energy from the oxidation of these macronutrients. Specifically, protein rarely supplies much energy during exercise. It becomes a significant fuel source during starvation.

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