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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ISSA CPT Exam Questions

Page 9 of 58

161.

During the initial client consultation, within which form would a client find information about client-trainer confidentiality?

  • Informed consent

  • Client-trainer agreement

  • Assumption of risk agreement

  • Medical questionnaire

Correct answer: Informed consent

Informed consent is correct because this form provides clients with information regarding the content and process of the program delivery system. In addition to information regarding confidentiality, a detailed description of the program, the risks, and benefits associated with participation and the responsibilities of the participant are included. This information should be provided both verbally and in writing in order to ensure client understanding.

Client-trainer agreement is incorrect because this underlines how the components of the training program will be delivered. Assumption of risk agreement is incorrect because this is an agreement to waive the right to legal remedy in the event of injury.

162.

Which of the following exercises can be used during a warm-up to improve sprinting technique?

  • High knee drill

  • Downhill running

  • Stair sprinting

Correct answer: High knee drill

High knee drill is correct because this is a drill designed to improve sprinting form. These drills are performed at a slower speed than those used to improve stride length or stride frequency, and therefore should not be used as a substitute. Form drills are ideal to include in the warm-up and can be performed every day due to their low intensity.

Downhill running is incorrect because this is an exercise to improve stride frequency. Stair sprinting is incorrect because this is an exercise to improve stride length.

163.

A personal trainer has assigned hypertrophy training to a client to optimize muscle size before assigning muscular strength training to maximize strength. The trainer has made use of which type of variation?

  • Sequenced variation

  • Purposeful variation

  • Within-week variation

Correct answer: Sequenced variation

Sequenced variation is correct because this is an example of using the adaptations stimulated by one period of training to exert a powerful effect on the next period of training. This can result in a summation of training effect and make the training program incrementally more effective. Sequenced variation is also seen when strength gains are optimized in order for muscular power training to be more effective.

Purposeful variation is incorrect because this is used to expose the client to different training stimuli to continue adaptation. Within-week variation is incorrect because this varies the intensity of training across the selected week.

164.

Which of the following can become problematic when combined with negative self-talk?

  • Cognitive fusion

  • Implementation intentions

  • Outcome goals

  • Psyching up

Correct answer: Cognitive fusion

Cognitive fusion occurs when people believe the exact content of their own thoughts, and this can become very problematic with negative self-talk.

Rather than a futile debate over whether negative thoughts are true or false, fitness professionals should use motivational interviewing techniques to help the client work through mental roadblocks.

For example, asking clients, "If you let this thought be true, would it help you reach your goals?" is one way to help them realize the negative value of a thought for themselves.

165.

During the PAR-Q, a potential client noted that he is currently taking medication for high blood pressure. Which of the following must occur as a result of this discovery?

  • Client must contact his physician for recommendations in proceeding with an exercise program

  • Client must exercise only under the supervision of his physician

  • Client must follow all of the personal trainer's instructions while exercising

Correct answer: Client must contact his physician for recommendations in proceeding with an exercise program

Client must contact his physician for recommendations in proceeding with an exercise program is correct because this indicates that he currently has a cardiovascular disease (hypertension). Therefore, a physician must be consulted before beginning or progressing in an exercise program. Only if the client answers "no" to all of the questions of the PAR-Q can there be reasonable assurance that a graduated exercise program and a fitness appraisal are appropriate.

Client must exercise only under the supervision of his physician is incorrect because this may be excessive, depending on the recommendation of the physician. Client must follow all of the personal trainer's instructions while exercising is incorrect because these do not involve the counsel of the client's physician.

166.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

  • Slow to fatigue

  • Decreased oxygen delivery

  • Short-term contractions

  • Larger in size

Correct answer: Slow to fatigue

Type II muscle fibers (fast-twitch) are able to produce more speed and power in a contraction, but the intensity of that contraction is much shorter in duration because Type II muscle fibers fatigue more quickly than Type I muscle fibers (slow-twitch).

This is mainly because Type II muscle fibers have fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than Type I muscle fibers. Because Type II muscle fibers have fewer capillaries, they have less oxygen delivery. Type II muscle fibers are larger in size than Type I muscle fibers.

167.

If an individual is training using the heavy-to-light pyramid system, how many repetitions are they beginning with?

  • 1 to 2 repetitions

  • 4 to 6 repetitions

  • 8 to 10 repetitions

  • 6 to 8 repetitions

Correct answer: 1 to 2 repetitions

The pyramid resistance training system can be performed in either a light-to-heavy sequence or a heavy-to-light sequence. If an individual begins with a heavy load, (heavy-to-light system) they will perform with that load for 1 to 2 repetitions before progressing through 4 to 6 sets of decreasing weight and will end with being able to perform 10 to 12 repetitions with a lighter weight.

168.

All of the following are key characteristics of an independent fitness professional except:

  • Having little control over hours worked

  • No employment benefits such as 401k or subsidized health insurance

  • Ability to develop unique, custom, and creative programming

  • Need to maintain and transport equipment

Correct answer: Having little control over hours worked

An independent contractor does not work specified hours but rather on an as-needed basis. Contractors do not receive the benefits of full-time employees (e.g., health insurance). Advantages of being an independent contractor include having control over their own schedule and marketing and business practices, not being responsible for any overhead costs, and having the ability to develop unique, creative programming.

169.

What is the chance for success of an effective, yet challenging, goal?

  • 50%

  • 100%

  • 25%

Correct answer: 50%

50% is correct because this is a compromise between guaranteeing success and requiring too much effort. In general, goals are meaningless if they are not reasonably difficult. If clients do not achieve a goal initially, they will likely continue to attempt to achieve it or maintain the behavior.

100% is incorrect because this would not be considered a challenging goal and likely wouldn't be effective. 25% is incorrect because this is too challenging and may discourage the client.

170.

Which of the following would indicate a need for an individual to talk to their physician to obtain medical clearance before beginning an exercise program?

  • Answering yes to one question on the PAR-Q

  • High-density lipoprotein (HDL) > 60 mg/dl

  • Body mass index (BMI) < 30 kg/m2

  • A sedentary lifestyle (less than 30 min of moderate intensity exercise 3x/week)

Correct answer: Answering yes to one question on the PAR-Q

The PAR-Q is a questionnaire designed to identify signs and symptoms and risk factors of coronary artery disease (CAD), orthopedic issues, and previous diagnoses. Answering yes to any of the questions requires a physician's clearance for the individual to begin an exercise program.

An individual may need to obtain medical clearance if they are asymptomatic and have at least two risk factors for CAD, or if they exhibit signs and symptoms of CAD.

The following are considered some of the risk factors for (CAD):

  • an HDL less than 40 mg/dL
  • a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2
  • a sedentary lifestyle (less than 30 min of moderate intensity exercise 3x/week)
  • smoking
  • men over the age of 45 and women over the age of 55

Therefore, a BMI of less than 30 kg/m2 is not considered a risk factor. An HDL greater than 60 mg/dL is a healthy test result and is what's known as a negative risk factor. This can actually help offset other risk factors.

171.

What is flexibility?

  • The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

  • The ability to extend the hip flexors so that the fingers can reach the toes

  • The ability to arch the spine far enough back to create a half-circle shape

  • The ability to stretch muscles into their optimal posture

Correct answer: The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

Flexibility is defined as the normal extensibility (ability to stretch) of soft tissue with optimal control of movement or range of motion.

The client's range of motion will vary according to genetics, age, injury, pattern overload, and strength of opposing muscle groups. Neuromuscular efficiency is a component of flexibility.

172.

What makes "multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization" a balance-power exercise?

  • It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

  • It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires full range of motion

  • It requires dynamic control in the mid-range of the motion with multiplanar movement

  • It requires stabilization in the jump from a platform down to the floor

Correct answer: It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

Balance-power exercises are more progressive than balance-stabilization and balance-strength exercises, and they typically use all three planes of motion in addition to force production and stabilization.

173.

Which combination of repetitions, sets, intensity, tempo, and rest periods is ideal for maximal strength training?

  • Reps: 1-5 / Sets: 4-6 / Intensity: 85-100% 1RM / Tempo: Explosive / Rest: 3-5 minutes

  • Reps: 6-12 / Sets: 4-6 / Intensity: 75-85% 1RM / Tempo: 4/2/1 / Rest: 0-90 seconds

  • Reps: 12-20 / Sets: 3-5 / Intensity: 50-70% 1RM / Tempo: 2/0/2 / Rest: 0-90 seconds

  • Reps: 6-12 / Sets: 3-5 / Intensity: 75-85% 1RM / Tempo: 2/0/2 / Rest: 0-60 seconds

Correct answer: Reps: 1-5 / Sets: 4-6 / Intensity: 85-100% 1RM / Tempo: Explosive / Rest: 3-5 minutes

Maximal strength training progresses efficiently with few reps, more sets, very high intensity, fast/explosive movements, and long rest periods. Low intensity (30-45%) is ideal for power training, and high intensity (75-85% 1RM), moderate tempo (2/0/2), and short rest periods (0-60 seconds) encourage hypertrophy. Moderate intensity (50-70% 1RM) is best for muscular endurance and stabilization.

174.

All of the following are biogenic amines that are released during exercise and have been shown to help alleviate depression except:

  • Epinephrine

  • Serotonin

  • Dopamine

  • Norepinephrine

Correct answer: Epinephrine

Serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine are all biogenic amine neurotransmitters that tend to be lowered in depressed individuals. In addition, dopamine may also reduce the risk of Parkinson's disease and help improve motor skill development. All three of these are elevated with exercise, and exercise is likely as effective as medication for individuals with clinical depression.

While epinephrine is also biogenic amine neurotransmitter and is released during physical activity, it has not been shown as a factor in alleviating depression. Epinephrine, along with norepinephrine, does help deliver blood and oxygen to the working tissues during physical activity by stimulating increases in heart rate and blood pressure.

175.

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

  • Deep cervical flexors

  • Upper trapezius

  • Sternocleidomastoid

  • Levator scapulae

Correct answer: Deep cervical flexors

There are three basic compensatory patterns to be aware of as a fitness professional. Upper crossed syndrome is one of these three common distortion patterns. It is characterized by rounded shoulders and the head jutting forward. This distorted posture is often caused by an overactive upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae in the head and neck. Deep cervical flexors are typically lengthened (underactive) in this distortion pattern.

176.

What should a client do when setting up the starting position of the front squat exercise to ensure the barbell does not contact the rack?

  • Take one or two steps backward

  • Have spotters place barbell in parallel arm position

  • Take 4 to 5 steps backward

Correct answer: Take one or two steps backward

Take one or two steps backward is correct because this should provide plenty of clearance from the rack while still allowing the rack to be accessible if a quick re-racking is needed. A client will unrack a barbell during a front squat by achieving the parallel arm position, extending the knees and hips to lift the bar off the rack and taking one or two steps backward. From this position the client is ready to perform the set of front squats.

Have spotters place barbell in parallel arm position is incorrect because this is not safe, especially with heavy loads. Take 4 to 5 steps backward is incorrect because this is too far from the rack and may be a problem if the client needs to quickly re-rack the bar.

177.

A client reports that when he has a few hours free, he likes to go for runs where he sprints when he sees a dog, jogs when he sees a stop sign, and walks when he needs time to recover. Which of the following would be the best classification of this form of cardiovascular activity?

  • Fartlek training

  • Low-intensity steady state training

  • High-intensity interval training

  • Anaerobic conditioning

Correct answer: Fartlek training

Farttlek training is a method employed by some endurance athletes in an effort to overcome boredom and enhance their training programs. Fartlek training can involve completely random intervals (as described in the question) or time-based intervals in which the client manipulates the times of the exercise intervals during an exercise session.

Low-intensity steady state training involves maintaining a consistent heart rate at roughly 60-75% of max for the duration of the training session. High-intensity interval training involves exercising at 80% or more of heart rate max during work periods and lower intensities during rest periods. Anaerobic conditioning is a general term that refers to workouts designed to improve anaerobic energy system function.

178.

Which of the following is the best definition of a rest interval for muscular endurance and stabilization?

  • 0-90 seconds or longer if the client's work capacity requires it

  • 0-60 seconds or longer if the load/volume requires it

  • 3-5 minutes, according to exercise intensity and the client's fitness level

  • 1-2 minutes or longer if the client's work capacity requires it

Correct answer: 0-90 seconds or longer if the client's work capacity requires it

Short rest periods are ideal for muscular endurance and stabilization, as they reduce ATP and phosphocreatine replenishment and encourage increase in stamina. Muscular endurance exercises are moderate in intensity and do not require as much recovery.

The needs of clients will vary according to their age, previous activity level, fuel, stress, and sleep. Longer rest periods will result in the client's cooling down too much and can potentially lead to injury. The rest length should be affected by the load in this phase.

179.

Which of the following assessments administered during the initial client consultation includes questions about the client's self-esteem?

  • Inventory on attitude and readiness

  • Lifestyle inventory

  • Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire

Correct answer: Inventory on attitude and readiness

Inventory on attitude and readiness is correct because this includes questions about oneself as well as past experiences, appreciation for exercise, availability of support, time management and organizational skills, and potential obstacles. This assessment is an aspect of determining client-trainer compatibility. Other aspects of this include a detailed description of the available services and suitability and appropriateness.

Lifestyle inventory is incorrect because this details potential clients' behaviors, not their feelings. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire is incorrect because this informs the trainer about the potential client's safety for moderate to vigorous exercise.

180.

In the event a client "misses" the lift while performing a power clean (using bumper plates) and fails to complete the lift, what should they do with the barbell as it falls?

  • Drop the bar or push it away from the body

  • Rely on the spotter to help catch the bar

  • Keep the hands on the bar to slow its descent all the way to the ground

  • Try to catch the bar to prevent it from falling to the ground

Correct answer: Drop the bar or push it away from the body

Power exercises such as the power clean require explosive movement. The increased bar speed make these movements extremely difficult to spot, and therefore, personal trainers should never spot explosive movements performed by clients.

However, it is vital to provide instruction on what to do during these lifts when the lift cannot be completed or when the individual loses control of the bar. Teaching clients how to "miss" a lift is crucial to their safety and is just as important as teaching the technical details of the lift. If possible, the power clean should be performed using rubber bumper plates on a platform or in an open area, with no other equipment in the immediate space around where the lift will be performed.

When missing a rep on the power clean, the safest method to use is to drop the bar, and if possible, push it away from the body. This is one of the benefits of using rubber bumper plates for these movements, as they are designed to handle dropping the weighted bar to the floor. In addition, the lifter should also step or jump out of the way of the falling bar.

A lifter should never attempt to slow the bar down as it falls or to catch the bar to prevent it from falling. Both of these may increase the risk of injury to the lifter.

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