NASM-PES Exam Questions

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181.

Which of the following is not an alternative name for a product containing caffeine?

  • Beta-alanine

  • Yerba mate

  • Cocoa

  • Guarana

Correct answer: Beta-alanine

Beta-alanine is not an alternative name for a product containing caffeine. Beta-alanine is an amino acid that is used to synthesize carnosine, which can help reduce muscle fatigue during high-intensity exercise. 

On the other hand, caffeine is a stimulant that can improve mental alertness, physical performance, and reduce fatigue. Some alternative names for products containing caffeine may include cocoa, guarana, yerba mate, and kola nut extract.

182.

Jim is going to a cross-country skiing training camp next week where typical training days will last for five hours per day. What is the minimum amount of carbohydrate that Jim (who weighs 165 pounds) should consume daily while at this camp?

  • 825 grams

  • 1815 grams

  • 750 grams

  • 525 grams

Correct answer: 825 grams

825 grams is correct because this would constitute 11 g/kg/day, which is the minimum amount of carbohydrate needed for an ultra-endurance athlete (those involved in exercise lasting longer than four hours per day). Jim weighs 165 pounds or 75 kilograms (165 lb/2.2 lb/kg) and 75 kg x 11 g/kg/day = 825 g/day. This amount of daily carbohydrate will be needed to prevent fatigue, maintain cognitive function, and prevent illness and injury during this time of heightened training volume.

1815 grams is incorrect because this excessive number indicates that the body weight was not converted to kilograms.

750 grams is incorrect because this is the recommendation of an endurance athlete, not one who trains in excess of four hours per day.

525 grams is incorrect because this low amount would suffice for general training needs, not an athlete training in excess of four hours per day.

183.

What is the biggest difference between muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (GTO)?

  • Muscle spindles detect muscle length changes, while GTOs monitor muscle tension

  • Muscle spindles monitor muscle tension, while GTOs detect muscle length changes

  • Muscle spindles initiate muscle contraction, while GTOs prevent muscle contraction

  • Muscle spindles are found in tendons, while GTOs are found within muscle fibers

Correct answer: Muscle spindles detect muscle length changes, while GTOs monitor muscle tension

The biggest difference between muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (GTO) lies in their primary functions within the muscular system. 

Muscle spindles are specialized sensory receptors located within muscle fibers that are sensitive to changes in muscle length and the rate of length change. They play a crucial role in maintaining muscle tone, balance, and coordination by providing continuous feedback to the central nervous system about the state of muscle length and tension.

In contrast, Golgi tendon organs are located at the junction between muscles and tendons and are primarily sensitive to muscle tension. GTOs provide feedback to the central nervous system about the level of force being generated by the muscle, functioning as a protective mechanism to prevent excessive muscle tension and potential injury. When the tension in the muscle becomes too high, GTOs stimulate a reflexive relaxation of the muscle, reducing the force being applied and helping to maintain proper muscle function and joint stability.

184.

A muscle's ability to return to a normal length after an exercise is a demonstration of which behavioral property?

  • Elasticity

  • Extensibility

  • Irritability

  • Ability to develop tension

Correct answer: Elasticity

Muscle tissue has four behavioral properties:

  1. Extensibility: Refers to the ability of the muscle to be stretched or lengthened.
  2. Elasticity: Refers to the ability of the muscle to return to a normal length after being stretched or lengthened.
  3. Irritability: Refers to the ability of the muscle to respond to a stimulus.
  4. Ability to develop tension: Refers to the ability of the muscle to develop tension through contraction or the activation of a force within the muscle, to produce an action at the joint.

When a muscle returns to a normal resting length after an exercise, this is a demonstration of its elasticity. 

185.

When taking a circumference measurement from the thigh, where is the BEST place for the trainer to take the measurement?

  • 10 inches above the top of the patella

  • 5 inches above the top of the patella

  • 10 inches above the top of the iliac crest

  • 5 inches above the top of the iliac crest

Correct answer: 10 inches above the top of the patella

Circumference measurements can be another useful source of information when the goal is to alter body composition. The sites that NASM recommends include the following:

  • Neck
  • Chest
  • Waist
  • Hips
  • Thighs
  • Calves

When you take circumference measurements from the thigh, be sure to do so 10 inches above the top of the patella.

Also, be sure to hold the tape taut, and be consistent from measurement to measurement.

186.

You are creating the resistance training portion of a stabilization endurance program. Which of the following acute variables should you use to ensure optimal results?

  • Sets: 1-3 / Reps: 12-20 / Tempo (seconds): 4/2/1 / Intensity: 50-70% / Rest: 0-90 seconds

  • Sets: 4-6 / Reps: 1-5 / Tempo (seconds): 2/0/2 / Intensity: 85-100% / Rest: 3-5 minutes

  • Sets: 3-5 / Reps: 6-10 / Tempo (seconds): 2/1/2 / Intensity: 80-90% /Rest: 60-90 seconds

  • Sets: 2-4 / Reps: 8-12 / Tempo (seconds): 1/1/1 / Intensity: 60-80% / Rest: 30-60 seconds

Correct answer: Sets: 1-3 / Reps: 12-20 / Tempo (seconds): 4/2/1 / Intensity: 50-70% / Rest: 0-90 seconds

When creating the resistance training portion of a stabilization endurance program, using the following acute variables can ensure optimal results:

  • Sets: 1-3
  • Reps: 12-20
  • Tempo (seconds): 4/2/1
  • Intensity: 50-70%
  • Rest: 0-90 seconds

Stabilization endurance training is a phase of training that focuses on improving neuromuscular efficiency and core stability. The goal is to improve muscle imbalances and enhance the body's ability to stabilize joints during movement.

The recommended acute variables for resistance training during this phase are high reps, low intensity, and shorter rest periods. This allows the body to focus on neuromuscular control and stability, rather than heavy lifting and muscle hypertrophy.

Using 1-3 sets of 12-20 reps with a tempo of 4/2/1 and an intensity of 50-70%, and resting for 0-90 seconds between sets can help ensure optimal results during stabilization endurance training. This combination of acute variables allows for a sufficient challenge to the muscles while also promoting proper form and technique.

187.

When a client is undergoing the Sorensen Erector Spinae Test, to what degree should they extend their lumbar spine?

  • 30 degrees

  • 15 degrees

  • 45 degrees

  • 5 degrees

Correct answer: 30 degrees

The Sorensen Erector Spinae Test measures neuromuscular control and endurance of the spinal extensors. 

Have the client lie prone on a treatment table. Next, instruct the client to extend the lumbar spine to 30 degrees, and hold this position for as long as they can while you record the time.

For reference, a normal test is usually around 30 seconds.

188.

A push-up with the feet suspended followed by a crunch is ideal for which type of training program?

  • Stabilization

  • Power

  • Strength

  • Hypertrophy

Correct answer: Stabilization

A push-up with the feet suspended followed by a crunch is ideal for a stabilization training program. This type of exercise combination targets both the upper body and core muscles, requiring the participant to engage their stabilizing muscles to maintain proper form and alignment throughout the movement. 

Stabilization training focuses on enhancing muscular endurance, joint stability, and balance, which are crucial for building a strong foundation for more advanced training programs. 

Incorporating exercises like suspended push-ups and crunches into a stabilization training program can help individuals develop better body control, reduce the risk of injury, and improve overall functional fitness.

The other types of training programs do not emphasize suspension and stabilization:

Power training workouts focus on improving explosive muscle power through high-intensity exercises like jumping, throwing, and lifting, benefiting athletes and individuals seeking enhanced athletic performance and functional movements.

Strength training focuses on increasing the amount of force that a muscle or muscle group can exert. This is often achieved through exercises involving heavier weights with fewer repetitions. The primary aim of strength training is to enhance your muscular strength and the ability to resist force.

Hypertrophy training is designed to maximize the size of the muscles. It typically involves lifting moderate to heavy weights for a moderate number of repetitions, usually in the range of 6-12 reps per set. By causing microscopic damage to the muscle fibers, hypertrophy training stimulates the body to repair and grow the muscles during recovery, leading to increased muscle size.

189.

You ask one of your athletic clients to perform a box jump with stabilization. Your athlete senses that their knees are collapsing and reacts by pushing them laterally. This is an example of which of the following aspects of motor behavior?

  • Sensorimotor integration

  • Motor control

  • Proprioception

  • Motor response

Correct answer: Sensorimotor integration

Sensorimotor integration is the ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory data, and then execute the proper motor response.

One incredibly important point is that sensorimotor integration is only as effective as the quality of the sensory data being gathered. 

For example, an athlete who trains with improper form delivers improper sensory information to the central nervous system. As a result, this can lead to movement compensation and potential injury.

In the example above, your athlete has been developing healthy patterns of sensorimotor integration, which is why they were able to respond appropriately.

190.

During the pushing and pulling dynamic posture assessments, which of the following kinetic checkpoints are not a point of emphasis?

  • Ankle and foot complex

  • Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

  • Head

  • Shoulder complex

Correct answer: Ankle and foot complex

Ankle and foot complex is correct because during these movements the ankle and foot complex is placed in a position of stability and only a catastrophic imbalance or weakness would lead to any compensation of this area of the kinetic chain. Pushing and pulling assessments are focused on determining if the head moves forward, if the shoulders elevate, or if the low back arches as compensation. All of these can be observed from a lateral view.

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, head, and shoulder complex are incorrect because these are kinetic checkpoints for the pushing and pulling assessments.

191.

What is the CORRECT equation for predicting an object's amount of force?

  • Force = Mass x Acceleration

  • Force = Weight x Gravity

  • Force = Speed + Acceleration

  • Force = Weight + Speed

Correct answer: Force = Mass x Acceleration

The amount of force that an object can produce depends on how much mass it has and how fast it is moving. The following equation captures this concept:

  • Force = Mass x Acceleration

Mass is the amount of matter an object has, and acceleration is how fast that object is moving. In general, when a larger object moves quickly, it will most likely generate more force. The best way to illustrate this is to imagine being charged at by a linebacker compared to a quarterback. The larger player, the linebacker, will generate far more force—especially if they are running at top speed.

192.

During the overhead squat assessment, you notice that your client has an excessive forward lean from the lateral view. All of the following are underactive muscles except:

  • Soleus

  • Gluteus maximus

  • Anterior tibialis

  • Erector spinae

Correct answer: Soleus

During the overhead squat assessment, if your client has an excessive forward lean from the lateral view, the underactive muscles typically include the following:

  • Gluteus maximus
  • Erector spinae
  • Anterior tibialis
  • Intrinsic core stabilizers

Dealing with underactive muscles involves strengthening and activating them through targeted exercises and a well-rounded fitness program.

The soleus is considered an overactive muscle. 

193.

Which of the following is not contained within each functional unit of muscle?

  • Fasciculus

  • Troponin

  • Actin

  • Myosin

Correct answer: Fasciculus

Fasciculus is correct because this is this is a bundle of muscle fibers, which itself contains thousands of sarcomeres (the functional unit of muscle). The sarcomere is the myofilaments between the z-lines, or striations in skeletal muscle. During concentric contraction, the length of each sarcomere will decrease as the myofilaments are pulled across each other.

Troponin, actin, and myosin are incorrect because these are all structures found within every sarcomere.

194.

Which of the following sports performance tests would be the least appropriate for a twelve-year-old soccer player who has never trained outside of practice before?

  • 3 to 5 repetition squat

  • 10-yard sprint

  • Horizontal jump

  • Blood pressure

Correct answer: 3 to 5 repetition squat

3 to 5 repetition squat is correct because this test involves a heavy load with an exercise that requires technical proficiency. This test is not likely to be safe for this athlete, and maintaining safety during testing (and training) is imperative for a Sports Performance Professional. Performing a sub-maximal load with a leg press machine would be a more appropriate method of determining lower-extremity strength for this athlete.

10-yard sprint is incorrect because this is a safe method of determining acceleration ability.

Horizontal jump is incorrect because this is a relatively safe method of determining bilateral lower-extremity power.

Blood pressure is incorrect because there is little risk associated with obtaining this measurement.

195.

To promote athlete safety, which of the following vitamin supplements should a Sports Performance Professional recommend not taking?

  • Vitamin A

  • Vitamin C

  • Vitamin D

  • Vitamin B12

Correct answer: Vitamin A

Vitamin A is correct because some research has shown that vitamin A supplementation can lead to reduced bone mineral density and increased fracture risk. This is specific to the retinol form of this vitamin that is commonly used in dietary supplements and fortified foods, making monitoring natural source intake unnecessary. The best natural sources of vitamin A are fruits and vegetables.

Vitamin C, vitamin D and vitamin B12 are incorrect because moderate supplementation is likely safe, though excessive intake is never recommended.

196.

If a 185-pound male athlete with 12% body fat gained five pounds of lean mass without decreasing any fat mass, what would his new body composition be?

  • 11.7%

  • 8.6%

  • 12%

  • 14.3%

Correct answer: 11.7% 

11.7% is correct because fat mass = body weight x percent fat mass = 185 x .12 = 22.2 pounds, and new body composition = fat mass/body weight x100 = 22.2/190 x 100 = 11.7%. Body composition can measured through such methods as skin-fold measurement, underwater weighing or bioelectrical impedance. This information can be used to determine a goal weight or to assess progress.

8.6% is incorrect because this number would be found if dividing body weight by fat mass.

12% is incorrect because a change would have to occur if a change occurs in one type of mass and not the other.

14.3% is incorrect because this would be the athlete's body composition if they gained five pounds of fat mass.

197.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended lift to be used during Phase 4 of the Optimum Performance Training model (maximum strength)?

  • Clean-and-jerk

  • Back/front squat

  • Snatch and clean deadlifts

  • Bench press

Correct answer: Clean-and-jerk

Phase 4 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focuses on maximum strength, which means the following lifts are recommended:

  • Back squat
  • Front squat
  • Snatch and clean deadlifts
  • Bench press

While the athlete is building strength with these auxiliary exercises, the technical aspects of the classic Olympic lifts such as the snatch and the clean-and-jerk can begin to be taught. Phases 5 and 6 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model are where the athlete will focus on the clean-and-jerk, as these phases focus on developing power, and these exercises are ideal for that purpose.

198.

The International Olympic Committee and the National Collegiate Athletic Association have both established legal limits for urinary caffeine. Which of the following captures this limit by each organization, respectively?

  • 12 mcg of caffeine/mL and 15 mcg of caffeine/mL

  • 9 mcg of caffeine/mL and 12 mcg of caffeine/mL

  • 15 mcg of caffeine/mL and 18 mcg of caffeine/mL

  • 3 mcg of caffeine/mL and 6 mcg of caffeine/mL

Correct answer: 12 mcg of caffeine/mL and 15 mcg of caffeine/mL

The International Olympic Committee and the National Collegiate Athletic Association have both established legal limits for urinary caffeine. 

  • The International Olympic Committee recognizes 12 mcg of caffeine/mL as their legal limit.
  • The National Collegiate Athletic Association recognizes 15 mcg of caffeine/mL as theirs.

Since kidney clearance varies greatly from one person to another, it is tough to determine the upper limits of what an athlete can take and still be accepted into an event.

Moreover, most studies are performed using pure, lab-grade caffeine; whereas caffeine from natural sources such as herbs might behave differently, especially with the clearing rate.

199.

Which of the following is the measure of pressure on the vascular walls between heart beats?

  • Diastolic blood pressure

  • Systolic blood pressure

  • Cardiac output

  • Stroke volume

Correct answer: Diastolic blood pressure

Diastolic blood pressure is correct because this is the declined pressure, amounting only to the pressure needed to keep the blood vessels open. The systolic blood pressure is the vascular wall pressure while blood is being pumped out of the heart. Elevations in these measurements indicate decreases in the elasticity of the vascular walls, plaque deposits in the arteries, or other aspects of cardiovascular disease.

Systolic blood pressure is incorrect because this is the pressure on the vascular walls while blood is being pumped from the heart.

Cardiac output is incorrect because this is the product of heart rate and stroke volume and is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in a given amount of time.

Stroke volume is incorrect because this is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in each beat.

200.

What is the primary goal of active flexibility?

  • Improve soft-tissue extensibility in all planes of motion

  • Increase passive range of motion without muscle activation 

  • Enhance muscle strength without affecting joint mobility

  • Focus solely on isolated muscle stretching without functional movement patterns

Correct answer: Improve soft-tissue extensibility in all planes of motion

The primary goal of active flexibility is to improve soft-tissue extensibility in all planes of motion. Active flexibility involves using the contraction of agonist muscles to produce a controlled stretch of the antagonist muscles. 

This type of flexibility training not only increases the range of motion in joints but also promotes neuromuscular control, coordination, and functional movement patterns. 

By improving soft-tissue extensibility in all planes of motion, active flexibility helps to enhance overall mobility, reduce the risk of injury, and optimize athletic performance.