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NASM-PES Exam Questions
Page 9 of 50
161.
How many essential amino acids are there?
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9
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7
-
12
-
6
Correct answer: 9
There are nine essential amino acids, which are amino acids that cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. These essential amino acids are:
- Histidine
- Isoleucine
- Leucine
- Lysine
- Methionine
- Phenylalanine
- Threonine
- Tryptophan
- Valine
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins that are essential for the growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues in the body. The body can synthesize non-essential amino acids, which are amino acids that can be produced by the body, but the essential amino acids must be obtained through the diet.
It is important to consume a variety of protein sources to ensure that all of the essential amino acids are consumed in adequate amounts.
Animal sources of protein, such as meat, poultry, fish, and dairy, are complete proteins, meaning they contain all of the essential amino acids.
Plant sources of protein, such as beans, lentils, nuts, and grains, are incomplete proteins and typically lack one or more of the essential amino acids. However, by combining different plant sources of protein, such as rice and beans, it is possible to obtain all of the essential amino acids.
162.
Which supplement ingredient is typically found in many other supplements because it helps with bioavailability?
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Piperine
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Creatine
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Beta-alanine
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Valine
Correct answer: Piperine
Black pepper extract (piperine) is often included in supplements to enhance the bioavailability of other ingredients.
Piperine is a compound extracted from black pepper that has been shown to enhance the bioavailability of various nutrients and supplements. It does this by inhibiting certain enzymes in the liver and intestines that break down and eliminate these substances before they can be fully absorbed into the bloodstream.
In addition to improving the absorption of other compounds, piperine may also have some health benefits of its own. It has been suggested that it has anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties, as well as potential effects on brain function and weight management.
163.
A Sports Performance Professional can use which of the following methods to measure body fat?
I. Skin-fold measurement
II. Circumference measurement
III. Body weight measurement
IV. Whole body plethysmography
V. Underwater weighing
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I, IV and V only
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I, II and IV only
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III, IV and V only
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All of these
Correct answer: I, IV and V only
I, IV and V only is correct because all of these measurements can be used to determine body fat percentage or the amount of fat mass, which can then be compared to total body mass to determine body fat percentage. The relative amount of lean body mass is important for most athletic activities. Measuring body composition is important to give an athlete a starting point from which to measure progress.
I, II and IV only is incorrect because a circumference measurement cannot determine whether the girth is fat or lean mass.
III, IV and V only is incorrect because measuring body mass alone cannot separate that mass into fat and lean proportions.
164.
Which law does soft-tissue remodeling follow?
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Davis's Law
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Law of Overload
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Hooke's Law
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Newton's Law
Correct answer: Davis's Law
Soft-tissue remodeling follows Davis's Law, which states that soft tissues such as muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia adapt to the mechanical stresses placed upon them.
This means that when soft tissues are subjected to regular loading or stretching, they will remodel and reorganize their structure to better withstand those forces. Conversely, if soft tissues are not exposed to mechanical stresses or are immobilized, they may weaken and become less resilient.
Understanding Davis's Law is crucial in the fields of rehabilitation, injury prevention, and physical training, as it highlights the importance of progressive loading and stretching exercises for maintaining or improving the strength, flexibility, and function of soft tissues.
The Law of Overload is not a real law within fitness.
Hooke's Law states that the force required to extend or compress a spring by some distance is proportional to that distance.
Newton's laws describe the fundamental principles governing motion, force, and acceleration of objects in the physical world.
165.
Which of the following resistance training prescriptions should include the shortest rest interval?
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3 sets of 6 repetitions with 85% of 1RM
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5 sets of 2 repetitions with 95% of 1RM
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3 sets of 5 repetitions with 35% of 1RM
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4 sets of 4 repetitions with 87% of 1RM
Correct answer: 3 sets of 6 repetitions with 85% of 1RM
3 sets of 6 repetitions with 85% of 1RM is correct because these acute variables are utilized for hypertrophy training. The rest interval for hypertrophy training is typically between 45 and 90 seconds. This short period of rest increases the density of the training to cause more muscular damage and increases anabolic hormonal output.
5 sets of 2 repetitions with 95% of 1RM and 4 sets of 4 repetitions with 87% of 1RM are incorrect because these are examples of maximal strength training, which requires rest intervals greater than 3 minutes.
3 sets of 5 repetitions with 35% of 1RM is incorrect because this is power training, which requires rest intervals greater than 3 minutes.
166.
Casey wants to improve her body composition during the competitive season. Which of the following dietary habits is not recommended for her to achieve this goal?
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Severely restrict dietary fat
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Eat smaller, more frequent meals
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Increase vitamin and fruit intake
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Do not skip meals
Correct answer: Severely restrict dietary fat
Severely restrict dietary fat is correct because adequate dietary fat is essential for health and, ultimately, performance. Fat contributes to an athlete's energy supply at a variety of exercise intensities, aids in maintaining body temperature, and delivers and absorbs fat-soluble vitamins. The only instance where an athlete may be advised to reduce dietary fat is if they are consuming a higher fat diet (greater than 35% of one's daily calories); they should reduce their intake to the 20% to 35% range if attempting to decrease mass or improve body composition.
Eat smaller, more frequent meals; increase vitamin and fruit intake; and do not skip meals are incorrect because these dietary guidelines do aid in improving body composition.
167.
How much calcium is recommended for amenorrheic athletes?
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1,500 mg / day
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500 mg / day
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1,000 mg / day
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2,000 mg / day
Correct answer: 1,500 mg / day
The recommended daily intake of calcium for amenorrheic athletes is 1,500 mg.
Calcium is important for maintaining strong bones and reducing the risk of stress fractures, which can be a common issue in female athletes with irregular menstrual cycles. Adequate calcium intake can also help support muscle function and overall health.
168.
A 240-pound basketball player is consuming caffeine before games to improve performance. Which of the following doses is the smallest amount that can likely to lead to nervousness, headaches and diuresis?
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725 mg
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650 mg
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825 mg
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615 mg
Correct answer: 725 mg
725 mg is correct because this is the lowest amount that is greater than 6 mg/kg of caffeine. Doses greater than 6 mg/kg generally show less performance benefit and increased risk of adverse effects than the recommended dosage of 3 to 6 mg/kg. The highest end of the range of effective caffeine dosage for this athlete is: (240 lb./2.2 kg/lb) x 6 mg/kg = 655 mg.
650 mg and 615 mg are incorrect because these are below the high end of the recommended caffeine dosage.
825 mg is incorrect because, although above the recommended caffeine dosage, it is not the smallest answer above this threshold.
169.
You are designing a balance training program for your athlete that focuses on balance power. Which of the following exercises would not be appropriate?
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Single-leg squat
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Single-leg hop
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Single-leg box hop
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Single-leg proprioceptive plyometric progression
Correct answer: Single-leg squat
During a balance training program that focuses on balance power, your athlete will need high levels of eccentric strength, dynamic neuromuscular efficiency, and reactive joint stabilization. Balance power exercises tend to involve hopping from one foot to another, or performing hopping movements on the same foot.
Examples of balance-power exercises include single-leg hop, single-leg box hop, and single-leg proprioceptive plyometric progression.
The single-leg squat is an example of balance-strength exercises.
170.
Which of the following factors does NOT affect rest interval programming?
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Client preference
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Training intensity
-
Nutritional status
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Muscle mass
Correct answer: Client preference
Inadequate rest periods decrease performance and may lead to excessive compensation and perhaps even injury. As a trainer, you need to ensure your athletes have adequate rest periods; and this is going to be determined by a variety of factors:
- Training experience
- Training intensity
- Tolerance of short rest periods
- Muscle mass
- General fitness level
- Training goals
- Nutritional status
- Recoverability
Client preference does not affect rest interval programming.
171.
Which of the following muscle groups accelerates knee flexion during a concentric muscle action?
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Biceps femoris
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Quadriceps
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Tibialis anterior
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Gastrocnemius
Correct answer: Biceps femoris
The biceps femoris is one of the primary muscles responsible for accelerating knee flexion during a concentric muscle action. It is part of the hamstring muscle group, which also includes the semitendinosus and semimembranosus. These muscles are located on the posterior side of the thigh and play a crucial role in various lower-body movements.
During a concentric muscle action, the biceps femoris shortens under tension, generating force to flex the knee. This movement is essential for activities like running, jumping, and squatting. By working together with other hamstring muscles and the surrounding musculature, the biceps femoris helps maintain proper knee joint stability and alignment during these movements, contributing to overall lower body function and performance.
172.
How many times should a neuromuscular stretch be repeated?
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Three times
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One time
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Two times
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Four times
Correct answer: Three times
Neuromuscular stretching, also known as proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, is a highly effective method for improving flexibility and range of motion. It involves the use of both passive stretching and isometric contractions to help the targeted muscle group relax and lengthen further.
When performing neuromuscular stretching, it is generally recommended to repeat the stretch three times for optimal results. This repetition allows the muscles to progressively adapt and extend further with each subsequent stretch, thereby increasing flexibility and range of motion over time.
173.
Which sport utilizes an upper extremity strength assessment that involves bench pressing 185 pounds for the maximum number of repetitions?
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Basketball
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Football
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Volleyball
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Soccer
Correct answer: Basketball
Basketball is a sport that utilizes an upper extremity strength assessment that involves bench pressing 185 pounds for the maximum number of repetitions. This assessment is commonly used to evaluate the upper body strength and endurance of basketball players, who require significant upper body strength and power to perform various skills, such as shooting, rebounding, and defending.
Basketball players need to have strong chest, shoulder, and triceps muscles to generate the force necessary for explosive movements and quick changes of direction. The bench press assessment is a standardized way of measuring upper body strength and power.
174.
During sprinting, when there is a lack of coordination of contralateral hip and shoulder flexion and extension, which of the following will most likely occur?
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Excessive rotation of the body
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Improper flexion at the head
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Inadequate hip flexion
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Excessive lumbar flexion
Correct answer: Excessive rotation of the body
During sprinting, when there is a lack of coordination of contralateral hip and shoulder flexion and extension, excessive rotation of the body will most likely occur. Proper sprinting technique involves a coordinated movement of the opposite hip and shoulder in a reciprocal fashion, allowing for efficient transfer of force and minimal energy loss.
When contralateral hip and shoulder coordination is disrupted, it can lead to excessive rotation of the body, which can reduce overall sprinting efficiency and increase the risk of injury. Excessive rotation of the body may cause the upper body to twist, disrupting the natural alignment of the spine and creating an imbalance in the distribution of forces throughout the body. This, in turn, can result in a decrease in sprinting speed and performance.
To correct this issue, athletes need to work on improving their contralateral coordination through specific drills and exercises. Some examples include:
- Standing arms swings
- Weighted arm swings
- A-skips
- B-skips
175.
In relation to athletic nutrition, what does EAR stand for?
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Estimated Average Requirement
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Estimated Allowance Requirement
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Estimated Average Recommendation
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Energy Average Requirement
Correct answer: Estimated Average Requirement
In relation to athletic nutrition, EAR stands for Estimated Average Requirement, which is used to assess dietary adequacy and is the basis for the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA). An Estimated Average Requirement is a daily nutrient intake value that is estimated to meet half of the healthy individual's requirement.
The Recommended Daily Allowance is the average daily dietary intake that adequately meets the nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
176.
Trevor wants to begin supplementing with creatine to enhance improvements with his resistance training. Which of the following recommendations would be the most effective for the initial period of creatine supplementation?
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20 g/day for 5 days
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5 g/day for 7 days
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20 g/day for 3 days
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10 g/day for 4 days
Correct answer: 20 g/day for 5 days
20 g/day for 5 days is correct because creatine supplementation begins with an on-boarding phase that lasts for 5 to 7 days. During this phase, the amount of creatine ingested daily should be 20 g/day. This allows for a rapid increase in muscle creatine that can then be followed with maintenance doses of 2 to 5 g/day to sustain maximal muscle creatine levels.
5 g/day for 7 days is incorrect because this is not a high enough dose during the on-boarding phase to saturate the muscles.
20 g/day for 3 days is incorrect because this on-boarding period is not long enough to ensure maximal muscle creatine levels.
10 g/day for 4 days is incorrect because this dosage is not high enough and the period is not long enough to saturate the muscles with creatine.
177.
The 20-meter multi-stage shuttle test is a predictor of which of the following?
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VO2 Max
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Anaerobic power
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Maximum heart rate
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Aerobic endurance
Correct answer: VO2 Max
The 20-meter multi-stage shuttle test is a predictor of an athlete's VO2 max.
VO2 max is a measure of an athlete's maximal oxygen uptake during exercise and is a commonly used indicator of aerobic fitness. The 20-meter multi-stage shuttle test, also known as the beep test or the Yo-Yo test, is a test of an athlete's aerobic fitness that involves running back and forth between two lines 20 meters apart, timed to a series of beeps. The beeps start out slowly and gradually increase in speed, with shorter intervals between beeps. The athlete must reach the opposite line before the beep sounds, and then wait for the next beep before running back to the starting line.
The 20-meter multi-stage shuttle test is an effective predictor of an athlete's VO2 max, as it provides a standardized and objective measure of their aerobic fitness. The test has been shown to be highly correlated with VO2 max, making it a useful tool for assessing an athlete's aerobic capacity and for designing training programs to improve it.
178.
What does the Standing Soccer Throw measure and where in the body does it measure that?
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Power of the core
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Strength of the back
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Endurance of the back
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Strength of the arms
Correct answer: Power of the core
The Standing Soccer Throw measures the power of the core. This assessment involves standing with feet shoulder-width apart and in a staggered stance. The client throws a medicine ball as far as possible with an overhead motion. The distance of the throw is measured, and it reflects the power generated from the core muscles and upper extremities.
The core muscles play a crucial role in generating power for various activities, including throwing, punching, jumping, and kicking. The Standing Soccer Throw is a dynamic movement that requires coordination between the upper and lower body while generating maximal force from the core muscles.
By measuring the distance of the soccer ball throw, fitness professionals can assess the power generated from the core muscles and identify any limitations or weaknesses. This information can be used to develop targeted exercise programs to improve the client's core strength and power, which can enhance their overall fitness level and reduce the risk of injury during physical activity.
179.
Which of the following cardiorespiratory assessments would be ideal for a client who plays soccer?
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20-meter multistage shuttle test
-
30-yard sprint
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LEFT test
-
T-test
Correct answer: 20-meter multistage shuttle test
For a client who plays soccer, the ideal cardiorespiratory assessment would be the 20-meter multistage shuttle test, also known as the beep test or the Yo-Yo test. This assessment is widely used to measure aerobic capacity, endurance, and overall fitness in athletes, particularly those involved in sports that require continuous running and frequent changes in direction, such as soccer.
The 20-meter multistage shuttle test involves running back and forth between two lines set 20 meters apart, in time with a series of audio beeps. The beeps start at a relatively slow pace and progressively become faster at each subsequent level, requiring the participant to increase their running speed to match the pace. The test continues until the participant can no longer maintain the required pace or fails to reach the line in time with the beeps on two consecutive occasions.
The 30-yard sprint is a speed assessment.
The LEFT test and T-test are for agility.
180.
Tim is performing four sets of bench press with ten repetitions at 73 percent of his one repetition maximum. What type of resistance training system is Tim utilizing?
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Multiple-set system
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Pyramid system
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Circuit training system
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Single-set system
Correct answer: Multiple-set system
Multiple-set system is correct because this is defined by performing multiple sets for each exercise. The majority of sports performance training uses a multiple-set system. The resistance, sets and repetitions can be selected based on the goals and needs of the athlete.
Pyramid system is incorrect because this system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases the load with each set.
Circuit training system is incorrect because this involves multiple exercises performed one after the other with minimal rest.
Single-set system is incorrect because multiple sets of the bench press are prescribed.