NASM-PES Exam Questions

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61.

If you wanted to focus on drills that help to improve your athlete's conditioning, which stage of metabolic training would you use?

  • Stage 4

  • Stage 1

  • Stage 2

  • Stage 3

Correct answer: Stage 4

Stage 4 of metabolic training focuses on drills that help to improve your athlete's conditioning. This is accomplished with linear, multi-directional, and sports-specific activities. 

This stage incorporates many of the movements, skills, and drills that coaches often use in practice sessions to apply a sport-related stimulus for metabolic benefits.

The idea is to closely mimic more stressful, game-like sessions in order to improve both conditioning and also applicable performance.

62.

You are able to extend, abduct, and externally rotate your hips. Which type of movement pattern are you in?

  • Supination

  • Pronation

  • Rotational

  • Sagittal

Correct answer: Supination

Supination is a term used to describe a specific movement pattern that occurs primarily at the ankle joint, but it can also occur at other joints such as the foot, lower leg, and hip.

If you are able to extend, abduct, and externally rotate your hips, then you are in supination. On the other hand, if you're able to flex, adduct, and internally rotate your hip, then you are in pronation.

63.

Which of the following sports performance tests would be the most appropriate to measure an athlete's acceleration ability?

  • 10-yard sprint

  • 30-yard sprint

  • 5-10-5 test

  • Lower-extremity functional test

Correct answer: 10-yard sprint

10-yard sprint is correct because this distance is not long enough for an athlete to reach their top speed. This test is performed by a timer beginning the stop watch on the athlete's first movement and stopping once the athlete hits the 10-yard mark. The assessment also measures reaction capabilities.

30-yard sprint is incorrect because an athlete will reach top speed at this distance.

5-10-5 test and lower-extremity functional test are incorrect because they measure lateral speed and agility.

64.

If an athlete takes beta-alanine, which of the following is directly increased?

  • Buffering capacity

  • Blood flow

  • Oxygen uptake

  • Muscle strength

Correct answer: Buffering capacity

Beta-alanine is a popular supplement used by athletes to improve their performance. When an athlete takes beta-alanine, it directly increases their buffering capacity. This means that beta-alanine helps the body to buffer or regulate the pH level in muscles during exercise, which in turn delays the onset of fatigue and improves athletic performance. 

Beta-alanine is often used in combination with other supplements such as creatine to enhance its effects. 

It is important to note that beta-alanine supplementation may cause a harmless tingling sensation known as paraesthesia.

65.

What is the MAIN difference between the 300-yard shuttle drill and the 30-yard dash?

  • The 300-yard shuttle measures total anaerobic endurance; the 30-yard dash measures reaction capabilities and maximum speed

  • The 300-yard shuttle measures lateral power; the 30-yard dash measures muscular endurance

  • The 300-yard shuttle is used to determine movement dysfunction; the 30-yard dash is used to measure lower body strength

  • The 300-yard shuttle is used when measuring max heart rate; the 30-yard dash is used as a warm-up exercise before 1RM testing

Correct answer: The 300-yard shuttle measures total anaerobic endurance; the 30-yard dash measures reaction capabilities and maximum speed

These two tests are assessments in different categories. The 300-yard shuttle is a metabolic assessment; while the 30-yard dash is a Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) assessment.

Also, the 300-yard dash measures total anaerobic endurance, while the 30-yard dash measures reaction capabilities and maximum speed.

66.

Your client is performing lateral raises. Which plane of motion does this take place in? And which muscle group does this primarily target?

  • Frontal / Middle deltoids

  • Sagittal / Front deltoids

  • Transverse / Rear deltoids

  • Transverse / Trapezius

Correct answer: Frontal / Middle deltoids

Lateral raises are an exercise that primarily takes place in the frontal plane of motion, which is one of the three fundamental planes of motion in human anatomy. The frontal plane, also known as the coronal plane, divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections. During lateral raises, your client is moving their arms away from the midline of their body in a lateral or outward direction, parallel to the frontal plane.

The primary target muscle group of lateral raises is the middle deltoids, which are a part of the larger deltoid muscle complex in the shoulder. The deltoids are comprised of three distinct muscle heads: the anterior (front), middle (lateral), and posterior (rear) deltoids. Each of these heads contributes to various shoulder movements and stabilization. The middle deltoid is particularly responsible for shoulder abduction, which is the primary movement pattern in lateral raises.

Here are the three planes of motion:

  • Sagittal Plane: The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. Movements in this plane occur forward or backward along the midline of the body. Examples of sagittal plane movements include walking, running, and bicep curls.
  • Frontal Plane: The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves. Movements in this plane occur side-to-side or laterally. Examples of frontal plane movements include jumping jacks, side lunges, and lateral raises.
  • Transverse Plane: The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves. Movements in this plane occur horizontally, rotating around the vertical axis of the body. Examples of transverse plane movements include trunk rotation, twisting, and throwing a frisbee.

67.

A female athlete is complaining of constant fatigue and dizziness and is always battling a cough or flu. A deficiency of which of the following minerals is most likely with this athlete?

  • Iron

  • Selenium

  • Calcium

  • Vitamin A

Correct answer: Iron

Iron is correct because these are all symptoms of iron deficiency. Iron is one of the minerals most likely to be deficient in a female athlete. This deficiency can cause a decrease in performance capacity and miscellaneous health problems. This deficiency should only be diagnosed by an appropriate medical professional, but the Sports Performance Professional can suggest foods that are high in iron, such as red meat, pork, poultry, seafood and green leafy vegetables.

Selenium is incorrect because this is not a common deficiency.

Calcium is incorrect because a deficiency in this mineral is associated with decreased bone health.

Vitamin A is incorrect because this is not a mineral.

68.

During an overhead medicine ball throw, what is the absolute maximum amount of weight that can be used during this assessment?

  • No more than 5% of the athlete's body weight

  • A standard 5-pound medicine ball

  • No more than 10% of the athlete's body weight

  • A standard 10-pound medicine ball

Correct answer: No more than 5% of the athlete's body weight

During an overhead medicine ball throw, the absolute maximum amount of weight that can be used during the assessment is no more than 5% of the athlete's body weight.

The overhead medicine ball throw is a dynamic movement assessment that measures total body power and explosiveness. During the assessment, the client stands with their feet shoulder-width apart and throws a medicine ball overhead as far as they can. The weight of the medicine ball used during the assessment should not exceed 5% of the athlete's body weight to ensure proper form and technique.

Using a medicine ball that is too heavy for the athlete can increase the risk of injury and decrease the accuracy of the assessment results. Therefore, it is important to select an appropriate weight for the medicine ball based on the athlete's body weight and fitness level.

69.

Which of the following is described as the resting length of a muscle, and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length?

  • Length-tension relationship

  • Resting length relationship

  • Resting tension relationship

  • Force-tension relationship

Correct answer: Length-tension relationship

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length is known as the length-tension relationship.

This is based on the idea that there is an optimal length of the muscle, where the actin and myosin filaments have the greatest degree of overlap. When the muscle is activated at lengths beyond this optimal length, the resulting tension is less because there are fewer interactions between the myosin cross-bridges and the actin active sites.

70.

An athlete wants to complete a complex superset; which of the following is an example of this type of exercise pairing?

  • Barbell lunges followed by power step-ups

  • Barbell lunges followed by leg curls

  • Barbell lunges followed by push-ups

  • Barbell lunges followed by rotational chest passes

Correct answer: Barbell lunges followed by power step-ups

Barbell lunges followed by power step-ups is correct because a complex superset involves a strength exercise with a power exercise of the same body part. These are typically utilized during the power training phase to focus on both high force and high velocity training. Multiple complex supersets are typically performed for various body parts throughout a resistance training session.

Barbell lunges followed by leg curls is incorrect because this is an example of a compound superset.

Barbell lunges followed by push-ups is incorrect because this is a pairing that might be part of a peripheral heart action circuit.

Barbell lunges followed by rotational chest passes is incorrect because a complex includes a power exercise of the same body part.

71.

All of the following are characteristics of the UAP except:

  • Half squat position

  • Knees bent over the toes

  • Shoulders over the knees

  • Hips pushed back

Correct answer: Half squat position

The Universal Athletic Position (UAP) is a fundamental athletic stance that is used across many different sports and activities. It is characterized by several key components that contribute to balance, stability, and explosiveness. However, the UAP does not include a half squat position.

The key characteristics of the UAP include the following:

  • A stable base with feet shoulder-width apart
  • Knees bent over the toes
  • Shoulders over the knees
  • Hips pushed back
  • Neutral spine
  • Quarter-squat position

These components work together to allow individuals to maintain balance and stability while also being able to move quickly and explosively in any direction.

The stable base with feet shoulder-width apart provides a solid foundation, while the bent knees and hips pushed back help to lower the center of gravity and increase stability. The neutral spine helps to maintain proper alignment and reduce the risk of injury, while the slightly forward-leaning upper body helps to improve balance and facilitate explosive movement.

By mastering the UAP, individuals can improve their balance, stability, and ability to move quickly and explosively in any direction. This can be beneficial for a wide range of sports and activities, from football and basketball to soccer and tennis.

72.

Agility is an essential skill to have for a soccer player. If you wanted to test the agility of a client who plays soccer, you would use all of the following assessments except:

  • 20-Meter Multistage Shuttle Test

  • LEFT Test

  • 5-0-5 Test

  • T-Test

Correct answer: 20-Meter Multistage Shuttle Test

The Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT Test), T-Test, and 5-0-5 Test are better options for testing agility in soccer players because they are more specific to the sport. These tests involve movements such as quick changes of direction, deceleration, and acceleration, which are common movements in soccer. In contrast, the 20-Meter Multistage Shuttle Test is more focused on cardiovascular endurance.

The LEFT Test measures an athlete's ability to change direction quickly while maintaining balance and control. 

The T-Test is a popular agility drill that requires players to run forward, backward, and sideways in a T-shape while touching cones with their hands. This test simulates the quick lateral movements required in soccer, making it an excellent choice for assessing horizontal agility in soccer players. 

The 5-0-5 test is another test that measures lateral agility by having athletes run 5 meters to one side, 10 meters in the other direction, and then back to the starting point.

73.

When an athlete is performing a push-up test for muscular endurance, how long should the test last?

I. Until 60 seconds have elapsed

II. Until the low back arches

III. Until the athlete begins to feel tired

IV. Until the cervical spine extends

V. Until 30 seconds have elapsed

  • I, II and IV only

  • II, III and V only

  • I, II and III only

  • I and II only

Correct answer: I, II and IV only

I, II and IV only is correct because the push-up test for muscular endurance has three criteria for test cessation: 60 seconds of time, exhaustion without compensation, or compensations such as low back arch or cervical spine exhaustion occurring. During the test, the athlete lowers their body to touch a partner's closed fist placed under the chest. The total number of actual touches is recorded.

II, III and V only is incorrect because the test can last up to 60 seconds.

I, II and III only is incorrect because the athlete should push to exhaustion, not just feelings of tiredness.

I and II only is incorrect because the cervical spine extending is another compensation that will lead to stopping the test.

74.

Which of the following is a syndrome identified by the combination of eating disorders, amenorrhoea, and decreased bone mineral density?

  • Female athlete triad

  • Exercise-induced amenorrhoea disorder

  • Male athlete syndrome

  • Bone density depletion syndrome

Correct answer: Female athlete triad

The female athlete triad is a syndrome that consists of three interrelated conditions: disordered eating, menstrual dysfunction (amenorrhea), and decreased bone mineral density. 

This condition is often seen in female athletes who engage in sports that emphasize leanness, such as gymnastics, figure skating, and long-distance running. 

The triad can lead to serious health consequences, including an increased risk of stress fractures and osteoporosis. It is important for coaches, trainers, and medical professionals to be aware of the symptoms of female athlete triad and to take steps to prevent and treat this condition.

75.

Which of the following list of exercises is an example of a tri-set?

  • Bench press, push-ups, and medicine ball chest pass

  • Squat, bench press, and deadlift

  • Three sets of deadlifts

  • Overhead press, bicep curls, and lateral raises

Correct answer: Bench press, push-ups, and medicine ball chest pass

A tri-set is a training method that involves performing three exercises in a row with little to no rest in between each exercise. Tri-sets can be used to target the same muscle group, enhance muscular endurance, or increase workout intensity.

The given list of exercises, bench press, push-ups, and medicine ball chest pass, is an example of a tri-set focused on the chest (pectoralis major) muscles:

  1. Bench press: A compound exercise that targets the chest, as well as the triceps and shoulders, performed with a barbell or dumbbells.
  2. Push-ups: A bodyweight exercise that emphasizes the chest, triceps, and shoulders, with various hand positions available to modify the focus on the chest muscles.
  3. Medicine ball chest pass: A plyometric exercise that involves passing a medicine ball with force using the chest muscles, often performed against a wall or with a partner.

When performing this tri-set, the athlete would complete one set of each exercise in succession with minimal rest between exercises. After completing all three exercises, the athlete would then rest for a brief period before repeating the sequence for the desired number of sets.

The other options focus on a mix of muscle groups. A tri-set focuses on the same muscle group.

76.

When shopping for supplements, what type of supplement should you advise your client to avoid?

  • Proprietary blends

  • Fat burners

  • Multi-ingredients

  • Multivitamins

Correct answer: Proprietary blends

Proprietary blends are a type of supplement that should be avoided when shopping for supplements. This is because they often do not list the individual amounts of each ingredient, but rather list them all under one "proprietary blend" label, making it difficult to know exactly what and how much of each ingredient is in the supplement. This lack of transparency can make it challenging to assess the safety and effectiveness of the supplement. It is generally recommended to choose supplements that list the exact amounts of each ingredient on the label, allowing for better-informed decision-making.

77.

During linear sprinting, which two body landmarks should the hands reach during proper shoulder flexion and extension?

  • Forehead and buttocks

  • Forehead and anterior hip

  • Chin and buttocks

  • Chin and anterior hip

Correct answer: Forehead and buttocks

Forehead and buttocks is correct because this position allows for maximum acceleration of the shoulder movements to aid in acceleration and top speed without disrupting proper running posture and force transfer. Shoulder movements are opposite those of the lower body. It is also important to focus on the lateral movement of the shoulders as they should approach, but not cross, the body's vertical midline.

Forehead and anterior hip is incorrect because the extension of the shoulders at the anterior hip is too short.

Chin and buttocks is incorrect because the flexion of the shoulders at the chin is not high enough.

Chin and anterior hip is incorrect because neither shoulder flexion or extension is enough to optimize the force generated by the upper body.

78.

When a muscle is stretched very quickly, the muscle spindle contracts, and this stimulates the afferent fibers, causing the extrafusal fibers to fire and increase tension in the muscle. This is referred to as which of the following?

  • Myotatic stretch reflex

  • Autogenic inhibition

  • Joint receptor reflex

  • Protogenic inhibition

Correct answer: Myotatic stretch reflex

The myotatic stretch reflex occurs when a muscle is stretched very quickly. As a result, the muscle spindle contracts and stimulates the afferent fibers, causing the extrafusal fibers to fire and increase tension in the muscle tissue. 

This is why it's important to hold a static stretch for the recommended amount of time—no less than 30 seconds. The rationale for holding a stretched position is to stimulate the GTO's (golgi tendon organ) inhibitory action to the muscle spindles, and this will allow for adaptive changes at the new length.

79.

Which of the following exercises can be used to specifically increase quickness?

  1. Partner mirror drill
  2. Box drill
  3. Resisted sprinting
  4. Agility ball drill
  5. 1/3/5 wall drill

  • I and IV only

  • I, II and III only

  • IV only

  • III and V only

Correct answer: I and IV only

I and IV only is correct because both of these drills include a reaction component, which is a crucial aspect of quickness. Quick athletes are able to assess game situations and apply the necessary actions at a very high speed in response. Training for quickness takes the skills required for effective speed and agility and applies reactionary demands.

I, II and III only is incorrect because the box drill and resisted sprinting have pre-planned paths of movement.

IV only is incorrect because the partner mirror drill has a reaction component as well.

III and V only is incorrect because resisted sprinting and the 1/3/5 wall drill do not have reaction components.

80.

When determining body composition in athletes, which of the following factors can serve to decrease the accuracy of the measurement?

  • Large amount of fat mass

  • Height

  • Sport played

  • Age

Correct answer: Large amount of fat mass

Large amount of fat mass is correct because taking skin-fold readings on very overweight or obese individuals can be difficult and has been shown to decrease measurement accuracy. Skin-fold measurements may not be the best body composition method for this population due to this fact and the possible discomfort of the individual. Instead, bioelectrical impedance, circumference measurements or simply scale weight may be the best methods to determine a starting point and evaluate progress.

Height, sport played and age are incorrect because they have no bearing on skin-fold measurement.