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NASM-PES Exam Questions
Page 5 of 50
81.
You are performing a skinfold measurement for a client. Next up is the subscapular fold. Where is this located?
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Back
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Arm
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Thigh
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Torso
Correct answer: Back
The subscapular fold is located on the upper back, just below the lower tip of the shoulder blade (scapula).
To measure the subscapular skinfold, have the client stand with their arms relaxed by their sides. Locate the lower tip of the scapula, and then pinch a fold of skin and underlying fat tissue about 1-2 centimeters below the tip at a 45-degree angle to the spine. Make sure to pinch the skinfold parallel to the natural fold lines of the skin to obtain an accurate measurement.
82.
You are working with a client who is a marathon runner. She is currently training for her next race. What is the formula for the recommended amount of carbohydrates that she should be ingesting each day?
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7-10 g/kg/d
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4-5 g/kg/d
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5-7 g/kg/d
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11+ g/kg/d
Correct answer: 7-10 g/kg/d
When working with a client who is a marathon runner and training for their next race, it is essential to provide them with proper nutritional guidance. For an endurance athlete like your client, the recommended amount of carbohydrates they should be ingesting each day is between 7-10 grams per kilogram of body weight (g/kg/d).
This higher carbohydrate intake is crucial for endurance athletes because they rely heavily on carbohydrates as their primary fuel source during long-distance events. Consuming an adequate amount of carbohydrates can help maintain glycogen stores, provide sustained energy during training and competition, and support recovery between workouts.
To calculate your client's daily carbohydrate needs, multiply her body weight in kilograms by the recommended range of 7-10 grams. For example, if she weighs 60 kg, her daily carbohydrate intake should be between 420-600 grams (60 kg x 7-10 g/kg/d).
Encourage your client to consume a variety of carbohydrate-rich foods, such as whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and legumes, to meet her daily carbohydrate requirements and support her overall health and performance. Additionally, it is essential to consider other factors such as her individual energy needs, training volume, and intensity when tailoring her nutrition plan.
83.
Which of the following pieces of sensory information is not needed to control movement?
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Time of day
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Limb orientation
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Body position in space
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Texture of surface
Correct answer: Time of day
Time of day is correct because this is not information that would be conveyed from the body's sensory receptors. Sensory information allows the body to monitor the internal and external environments in order to modify motor behavior using adjustments ranging from simple reflexes to intricate motor patterns. Sensory information is essential in protecting the body from harm.
Limb orientation, body position in space, and texture of surface are incorrect because these are pieces of sensory information that are essential to controlling movement.
84.
During pronation, which of the following does the knee not do?
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Externally rotates
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Internally rotates
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Flexes
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Adducts
Correct answer: Externally rotates
Pronation is a term used to describe a specific movement pattern that occurs primarily at the ankle joint, but can also occur at other joints such as the foot and lower leg. During pronation, the foot and ankle rotate inward, resulting in a flattening of the arch of the foot and inward rotation of the lower leg.
When it comes to the knee joint, during pronation, the knee flexes, adducts, and internally rotates. This means that the knee joint bends, moves toward the midline of the body, and rotates inward toward the midline of the body. However, the knee joint does not externally rotate during pronation.
85.
Which of the following types of flexibility would be optimal for an athlete who has a few postural distortions and muscle imbalances?
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Corrective flexibility
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Active flexibility
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Functional flexibility
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Sports flexibility
Correct answer: Corrective flexibility
When an athlete has postural distortions, muscle imbalances, and joint dysfunctions, corrective flexibility training would be the best option for them. Corrective flexibility incorporates static stretching, self-myofascial release, and neuromuscular stretching.
From here, your athlete can progress to active and functional flexibility.
86.
An athlete has a muscle strain that is causing pain during both hip extension and knee flexion. Which of the following muscles is most likely affected?
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Biceps femoris
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Rectus femoris
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Gluteus maximus
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Adductor magnus
Correct answer: Biceps femoris
Biceps femoris is correct because this muscle is biarticular, crossing both the hip and knee joints, and is responsible for both hip extension and knee flexion. This muscle also serves to stabilize the Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip complex and knee. This muscle has two heads that originate in two different locations, but both insert on the head of the fibula.
Rectus femoris is incorrect because this biarticular muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee.
Gluteus maximus is incorrect because this muscle only extends the hip, as well as externally rotates it.
Adductor magnus is incorrect because this muscle only extends the hip, as well as adducts and externally rotates it.
87.
During the Shark Skill Test, how many practice runs are permitted?
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One practice run per foot
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One practice run for the jumping foot only
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Two practice runs per foot
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Three practice runs total
Correct answer: One practice run per foot
During the Shark Skill Test, one practice run per foot is permitted.
The Shark Skill Test is a dynamic movement assessment used to measure an athlete's lower extremity agility and change of direction ability.
Before the actual assessment begins, the athlete is permitted to take one practice run per foot to become familiar with the course and its specific pattern. The practice run helps the athlete to understand the course's layout, identify any potential obstacles or challenges, and improve their performance during the actual assessment.
88.
During the higher intensity day during the first week of the base training phase of cardiorespiratory performance training, how many intervals could be performed during a 40-minute training session that included a 10-minute warm-up?
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Five
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Three
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Fifteen
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Eight
Correct answer: Five
Five is correct because during the first week of the base training phase the high intensity training session will include intervals in zone 2 that have a three-minute duration and a three-minute rest interval (30 minutes/6 minutes per interval = 5 intervals). As one progresses through this phase, the ratio of interval length to rest will increase to spend more time in zone 2. Typically this phase will last for 1 to 7 weeks depending on the sport and training goal.
Three is incorrect because this would dictate that the training session only lasted for 28 minutes.
Fifteen is incorrect because the intervals in phase one are not one minute in length with one minute of rest.
Eight is incorrect because this would indicate the total duration of the interval and rest is approximately 3 minutes and 45 seconds.
89.
When performing a standing adductor active-isolated stretch, the contraction of which of the following muscles will enhance the stretch of the targeted muscles?
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Gluteus medius
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Adductor brevis
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Gastrocnemius
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Vastus medius
Correct answer: Gluteus medius
Gluteus medius is correct because active-isolated stretching uses reciprocal inhibition to increase range of motion. To increase the extensibility of the adductor complex, abductor muscles (gluteus medius) are excited, which then inhibit the adductor muscles. Active-isolated stretches typically involve five to ten repetitions of a stretch with one- to two-second holds at end range.
Adductor brevis is incorrect because this muscle should not be contracted as it is one of the target muscles to be elongated.
Gastrocnemius is incorrect because this muscle would reciprocally inhibit the tibialis anterior, not the adductor complex.
Vastus medius is incorrect because this muscle is the antagonist of the hamstring muscles, not the adductors.
90.
Which of the following is not an eccentric action of the gluteus maximus?
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Stabilization of the LPH complex
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Deceleration during hip flexion
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Internal rotation
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Tibial internal rotation
Correct answer: Stabilization of the LPH complex
The eccentric action of the gluteus maximus occurs when the muscle lengthens under tension while controlling the movement. There are three primary functions of the gluteus maximus during eccentric action:
- Deceleration during hip flexion
- Internal rotation
- Tibial internal rotation
The eccentric action of the gluteus maximus takes place during controlled hip flexion, such as when lowering the body during a squat or controlling the forward swing of the leg during walking or running. This controlled lengthening of the muscle helps to stabilize the hip joint and control the motion effectively.
Stabilization of the LPH complex takes place during isometric action.
91.
Jerry, a 180-pound high jumper, is consuming 190 grams of protein daily. What should be recommended to this athlete regarding his protein intake?
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Decrease protein intake
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Increase protein intake
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Maintain protein intake
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Maintain intake for the next 6 months and then decrease it
Correct answer: Decrease protein intake
Decrease protein intake is correct because this intake is much higher than the 1.6 to 1.8 g/kg/day that is recommended for a strength and power athlete. Eating more protein beyond this recommended level has not been proven to be any more effective at increasing lean mass. Jerry should be consuming between 131 grams (81.8 kg x 1.6 g/kg/day) and 147 grams (81.8 kg x 1.8 g/kg/day) of protein per day.
92.
Jill, a female soccer player, is concerned about losing strength during her season. What is the minimum number of times she needs to perform resistance training per week to prevent detraining?
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One
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Two
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Three
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Four
Correct answer: One
One is correct because research has shown that physiological adaptation can be maintained with a minimum of one exposure per week. For resistance training to be effective in maintaining strength, every part of the body must be addressed within this one training session. Improvements in strength are typically seen within a minimum of three days.
Two is incorrect, because although recommended for strength maintenance, it is not the minimum frequency.
Three and four are incorrect because performing this many resistance training sessions may cause too much fatigue, which can interfere with the performance and safety of the athlete during the competitive season.
93.
Which of the following can be described as the ability to store and release energy?
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Stretch-shortening cycle
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Isometric contraction
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Muscular endurance
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Isometric strength
Correct answer: Stretch-shortening cycle
The stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) is a natural mechanism within the muscular system that allows for more powerful and explosive movements. It involves a rapid lengthening of a muscle (eccentric contraction) immediately followed by a shortening (concentric contraction), taking advantage of the muscle's elastic properties and the stretch reflex. The SSC consists of three phases:
- Eccentric phase: The muscle is rapidly lengthened, or stretched, as it experiences an external force. During this phase, the muscle stores potential elastic energy.
- Amortization phase: This is a brief transitional phase between the eccentric and concentric phases. The aim is to minimize the time spent in this phase to maximize the use of stored elastic energy.
- Concentric phase: The muscle quickly shortens, or contracts, using the stored elastic energy and the stretch reflex to produce a powerful, explosive movement.
The stretch-shortening cycle is commonly used in plyometric exercises, which are designed to enhance power, speed, and agility in athletes. By utilizing the SSC, athletes can generate greater force more quickly, improving their performance in various sports and activities.
An isometric contraction is a type of muscle contraction where the muscle generates force without changing its length, maintaining a static position or posture.
Muscular endurance refers to the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions or maintain a static contraction for an extended period of time.
Isometric strength is the maximum force a muscle can generate during an isometric contraction, where the muscle maintains a constant length while producing tension.
94.
For every 15–20 minutes of exercise, how many ounces of water or sports drink should you consume DURING the training session?
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6–12 ounces
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1–3 ounces
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3–6 ounces
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12–15 ounces
Correct answer: 6–12 ounces
A well-executed hydration plan allows the client to arrive for training sessions prepared and hydrated.
Before exercise, your client should consume 14–22 ounces of water.
For every 15–20 minutes of exercise, your client should drink 6–12 ounces of water or sports drink during the training session.
After exercise, your client should drink 16–24 ounces of water or sports drink for every pound of body mass lost during exercise.
95.
You have a client who wants to improve his powerlifting performance. Which of the following strength assessments is going to be ideal for estimating the one-repetition maximum for overall upper body strength for PRESSING musculature?
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Bench press
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Squat
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Deadlift
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Row
Correct answer: Bench press
The bench press is the best strength assessment for estimating the one-repetition maximum for overall upper body strength, specifically for the pressing musculature.
Be sure to have the client perform a light resistance warm-up of 8–10 reps. Give them a minute to rest before adding 10–20 pounds and having them perform 3–5 reps.
Again, give the client a 2-minute break.
Repeat these steps until the client fails at 3–5 reps.
A squat measures lower body strength.
The deadlift and row measure PULLING strength.
96.
Henry, a 22-year-old soccer player with a resting heart rate of 58, is assigned to perform one-minute intervals at 90% effort. What should his heart rate be during the interval using the Karvonen method?
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184 beats per minute
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178 beats per minute
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140 beats per minute
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198 beats per minute
Correct answer: 184 beats per minute
184 beats per minute is correct because, if using the Karvonen method, 90% of the heart rate reserve is 126, and when this is added to resting heart rate, it is equal to 184 beats per minute. The heart rate reserve is calculated by subtracting the resting heart rate (58 bpm) from the estimated heart rate (220-age = 220-22 = 198 bpm) to get 140 bpm. Many consider the Karvonen method to be more accurate than the percentage of heart rate maximum to assign training intensity.
178 beats per minute is incorrect because this is the intensity if derived as a percentage of estimated maximum heart rate.
140 beats per minute is incorrect because this is the heart rate reserve of the athlete.
198 beats per minute is incorrect because this is the estimated maximum heart rate of the athlete.
97.
Which form of stretching is theorized to decrease muscle spindle activity and motor neuron excitability?
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Static stretching
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Ballistic stretching
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Dynamic stretching
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Functional stretching
Correct answer: Static stretching
Static stretching is a type of stretching that involves holding a position for a prolonged period, usually around 30 seconds. This form of stretching is believed to decrease muscle spindle activity and motor neuron excitability, leading to a decrease in muscle tone and an increase in range of motion.
Static stretching is commonly used in warm-up and cool-down routines, as well as in rehabilitation and flexibility training programs.
However, there is some debate among experts regarding the effectiveness and safety of static stretching, especially when done before intense physical activity. Some studies suggest that static stretching may actually impair performance and increase the risk of injury in certain situations.
Dynamic stretching (DS) is a type of flexibility exercise that involves actively moving joints and muscles through their full range of motion, typically in a controlled and rhythmic manner, to improve mobility and prepare the body for physical activity.
Ballistic stretching (BS) is a type of flexibility exercise that involves rapid, bouncing movements to push muscles and joints beyond their normal range of motion, which is generally not recommended due to the risk of injury.
Functional stretching is a type of flexibility exercise that focuses on improving the specific range of motion required for a particular activity or sport, often incorporating movements that mimic the actions performed during the activity.
98.
Which of the following is comprised of an inflatable cuff, a pressure meter with an inflation bulb or valve, and a stethoscope; and is used to measure blood pressure?
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Sphygmomanometer
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Calipers
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Stadiometer
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Composition analyzer
Correct answer: Sphygmomanometer
Blood pressure is measured by using a sphygmomanometer, which is made up of an inflatable cuff, a pressure meter with an inflation bulb or valve, and a stethoscope.
Before measuring blood pressure, the athlete should sit down for 5–10 minutes with their legs uncrossed.
The trainer should place the appropriate size cuff on the left arm of the athlete, just above the elbow.
Place the stethoscope over the brachial artery using a minimal amount of pressure. Rapidly inflate the cuff to 20–30 mm Hg above the point when the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
Next, the valve should be opened on the bulb to release the pressure at a rate of about 2 mm Hg per second. This is when it's essential to listen for the pulse while watching the pressure meter's reading decline.
From here, the trainer can determine the diastolic and systolic blood pressure.
99.
What is the recommended amount of protein per meal to increase lean muscle mass?
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20–40 grams
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5–10 grams
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10–20 grams
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40–50 grams
Correct answer: 20–40 grams
If the goal is to increase lean muscle mass, NASM recommends eating 4–6 meals per day, with each meal containing 20–40 grams of protein.
For the best results, it's recommended to consume one of those high-protein meals immediately after exercise.
100.
Which of the following is NOT a type of speed, agility, and quickness assessment?
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Shark Skill Test
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30-yard sprint
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Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT)
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5-10-15 Test
Correct answer: Shark Skill Test
Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) assessments measure a variety of variables including reaction time, acceleration speed, and maximal speed. The following are commonly used SAQ assessments:
- 30-yard sprint
- Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT)
- 5-10-15 Test
- Three-Quarters Court Sprint
- T-Drill
- Pro Lane Agility Drill
The Shark Skill Test is a power assessment that is designed to assess lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control.