NASM-PES Exam Questions

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121.

The stretch-shortening cycle occurs as a result of a transition between which two types of muscle contraction?

  • Eccentric and concentric

  • Isometric and concentric

  • Isometric and eccentric

  • Isometric and isokinetic

Correct answer: Eccentric and concentric

Eccentric and concentric is correct because the rapid eccentric contraction that occurs during the stretch-shortening cycle creates a stretch reflex storing potential energy that is used to produce a concentric contraction more forceful than if generated by a resting muscle. Training the stretch-shortening cycle is important to increase explosive force production, an important factor in athletic performance. Stabilization strength, core strength, and neuromuscular efficiency all serve to improve the stretch-shortening cycle.

Isometric and concentric is incorrect because the stretch-shortening cycle requires a rapid eccentric contraction.

Isometric and eccentric is incorrect because the stretch-shortening cycle is realized during the concentric phase of movement.

Isometric and isokinetic is incorrect because the stretch-shortening cycle does not occur at a constant speed.

122.

Which stage of training is designed to prepare the body for the demands of higher levels of training to follow?

  • Stabilization stage

  • Strength endurance stage

  • Hypertrophy stage

  • Maximal power stage

Correct answer: Stabilization stage

The stage of training that is designed to prepare the body for the demands of higher levels of training to follow is the stabilization stage. During the stabilization stage, the focus is on developing stability and endurance in the muscles that support the joints. This includes the core muscles, as well as the muscles of the hips, shoulders, and knees.

The stabilization stage is important because it sets the foundation for more advanced training techniques to come. By improving stability and endurance, the body is better equipped to handle the demands of higher-intensity workouts and can move more efficiently and safely during exercise. This stage is particularly important for individuals who are new to exercise or who have been inactive for a prolonged period.

The stabilization stage typically involves exercises that focus on bodyweight movements, balance, and coordination. These exercises are often performed at a lower intensity and higher volume, with a focus on perfecting form and developing neuromuscular control.

The strength endurance stage in fitness training is a phase that focuses on improving an individual's ability to maintain a submaximal level of force for extended periods, often through high-repetition, lower-weight exercises or sustained, lower-intensity activities.

The hypertrophy stage is a phase that focuses on increasing muscle size and mass through high-volume, moderate-to-high intensity resistance exercises, typically involving multiple sets with a moderate number of repetitions.

The maximal power stage is a phase that emphasizes developing the ability to generate the highest possible force in the shortest amount of time, typically through low-repetition, high-intensity resistance exercises or explosive movements.

123.

Casey has just completed a strenuous training session. What should he consume in order to enhance muscle recovery and glycogen replenishment?

  • High glycemic index foods

  • Low glycemic index foods

  • High protein foods

  • Low protein foods

Correct answer: High glycemic index foods

High glycemic index foods is correct because these foods are digested and absorbed more quickly than others, which is important after stores have been depleted. High glycemic index foods cause a rapid rise in blood glucose and result in insulin release. Examples of high glycemic index foods include sports drinks and potatoes.

Low glycemic index foods is incorrect because these foods would be digested and absorbed slowly and not lead to faster recovery.

High protein foods and low protein foods are incorrect because protein intake does not affect glycogen replenishment.

124.

A sports coach would like a Sports Performance Coach to perform a Harvard step test with their athletes. What cadence and for what duration should the test occur in order to obtain accurate results?

  • 30 steps per minute for five minutes

  • 60 steps per minute for five minutes

  • 30 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes

  • 60 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes

Correct answer: 30 steps per minute for five minutes

30 steps per minute for five minutes is correct because this is an exercise intensity and duration that should be submaximal for the majority of the athletic population. The main purpose of the Harvard step test is to determine an athlete's ability to recover from a specific amount of stress. Recovery heart rate is taken at intervals after activity cessation and these numbers are calculated into a fitness index.

60 steps per minute for five minutes is incorrect because this exercise intensity is too high to be considered submaximal.

30 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes is incorrect because this exercise duration is not long enough to allow one to settle in to using their aerobic system to fuel exercise.

60 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes is incorrect because the exercise intensity is too high and the duration is too short.

125.

A Sports Performance Professional is writing a training program that includes days of SAQ training. How long should these SAQ training sessions last, including warm-up and cool-down?

  • 45 to 60 minutes

  • 60 to 90 minutes

  • 30 to 45 minutes

  • 15 to 30 minutes

Correct answer: 45 to 60 minutes

45 to 60 minutes is correct because this is enough time to complete quality training without allowing an over-accumulation of fatigue. Due to the high magnitude of CNS control necessary for these drills, fatigue can impact the accuracy and effectiveness of movement. SAQ training sessions should be organized and progress in a manner that facilitates improvement while minimizing the risk of injury.

126.

Ashley is exercising without having eaten in over eight hours. Which of the following is the most likely to increase as a result of her training session?

  • Stress hormone release

  • Immune system function

  • Fatigue resistance

  • Muscle glycogen

Correct answer: Stress hormone release

Stress hormone release is correct because this is the result of exercising in a carbohydrate-depleted state. Stress hormones are always released when exercising, but this release is greater when in a fasted state. In addition, exercising in a carbohydrate-depleted state can result in injury (less fatigue resistance and cognitive function) or illness (limited exercise-induced immunosuppression).

Immune system function, fatigue resistance, and muscle glycogen are incorrect because these will all decrease when exercising in a fasted or carbohydrate-depleted state.

127.

Which of the following pairs of fatty acids is considered essential for survival?

  • Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid

  • Oleic acid and palmitic acid

  • Linoleic acid and arachidonic acid

  • Myristic acid and stearic acid

Correct answer: Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid

Linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids are considered essential fatty acids (EFAs) for survival as the human body cannot synthesize them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. Linoleic acid is an omega-6 fatty acid and alpha-linolenic acid is an omega-3 fatty acid. These EFAs are important for many functions in the body, including maintaining healthy skin, cell membranes, and nerve function.

128.

A Sports Performance Professional is about to perform a battery of assessments with a team. Which of the following will not be ascertained from these assessments?

  • Injury diagnoses 

  • Information about the athletes' structural status

  • Information about the athletes' functional status

  • The athletes' readiness for activity

Correct answer: Injury diagnoses

Injury diagnoses is correct because this is outside the scope of both the Sports Performance Professional and the sports performance assessment. This assessment is not designed to replace a medical examination. Athletes who exhibit any risk factors that may exclude them from exercise, or who experience pain during any of the assessments, should be referred to their personal physician or another qualified health-care provider.

The other answer choices are incorrect because they are insights given by a sports performance assessment.

129.

If a Sports Performance Professional is prescribing 8 repetitions for each exercise, which of the following could be the training objective?

I. Stabilization

II. Strength-endurance

III. Hypertrophy

IV. Maximal strength

V. Power

  • III and V only

  • I and II only

  • III, IV and V only

  • II, IV and V only

Correct answer: III and V only

III and V only is correct because the repetition range to improve power is 1 to 10 repetitions and the repetition range to increase muscle mass is 6 to 12. However, other acute variables for these two training objectives differ greatly in order to cause the desired adaptation. Power training occurs at a faster tempo with a lesser load and greater rest interval than hypertrophy training.

I and II only is incorrect because stabilization and strength-endurance training are performed with 12 to 20 repetitions.

III, IV and V only is incorrect because maximal strength exercises are performed for 1 to 5 repetitions.

II, IV and V only is incorrect because only power resistance training is possibly performed for 8 repetitions.

130.

What is needed for a muscle to function optimally?

  • To be the ideal length

  • To be overactive

  • To be shortened

  • To be lengthened

Correct answer: To be the ideal length

To be the ideal length is correct because this indicates an ideal length-tension relationship. When a muscle is stimulated at a length less than or greater than this optimal length, the force-couple relationships between the actin and myosin and joint mechanics are altered. Changes in posture, pattern overload, injury, and decreased neuromuscular efficiency can alter the resting length of the muscle, decrease its ability to produce force and lead to muscle imbalances.

To be overactive, to be shortened, and to be lengthened are incorrect because these all result in alteration of length and disrupt the length-tension relationship.

131.

During the upper extremity strength assessment, how many minutes of rest should be provided in between each attempt?

  • 2 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 3 minutes

  • 5 minutes

Correct answer: 2 minutes

During the upper extremity strength assessment (the bench press), it is recommended to provide two minutes of rest between each attempt. 

The bench press is a classic compound exercise that involves multiple muscle groups, including the chest, shoulders, and triceps. It is commonly used in fitness assessments to evaluate upper body strength and muscle endurance.

Providing two minutes of rest between each attempt allows the muscles involved in the bench press to recover and recharge, ensuring that the client can perform at their best during the next attempt. It is important to note that the rest period should be standardized and consistent between attempts to avoid fatigue and minimize the risk of injury.

During the bench press, it is also essential to monitor the client's form and technique throughout the exercise. Poor form can increase the risk of injury and affect the accuracy of the results. By providing adequate rest and ensuring proper form, you can obtain reliable data that can be used to develop targeted exercise programs and track progress over time.

132.

According to the Landing Error Scoring System, which of the following would be considered a landing error?

  • Trunk not flexed at contact

  • Symmetric initial foot contact

  • Knee flexion greater than forty-five degrees

  • Knee over midfoot at initial contact

Correct answer: Trunk not flexed at contact 

Trunk not flexed at contact is correct because the trunk should be flexed to absorb the force upon landing and then transfer that force to the subsequent jump. Not flexing the trunk will also prevent other joints, such as the knees and ankles, from performing properly during the landing. This landing error can increase an athlete's risk of injury.

Symmetric initial foot contact, knee flexion greater than forty-five degrees, and knee over midfoot at initial contact are incorrect because these are not landing errors.

133.

Natalie is a soccer player who wants to improve her speed. As part of an overall sports performance program, what is the maximum number of days she should perform SAQ-specific training?

  • Three

  • Two

  • Four

  • Five

Correct answer: Three

Three is correct because, when performed on non-consecutive days, this is ideal for improvement. This allows for proper regeneration of the CNS as well as the involved muscle tissues. During a sports performance training program, SAQ drills should be performed before resistance training, preferably on different days.

Two is incorrect because although a frequency that can lead to improvement, it is not the maximum frequency recommended.

Four and five are incorrect because this may cause too much central nervous system fatigue and possibly lead to a plateau of improvement or over-training.

134.

Which of the following sports performance tests could be used to determine accurate training intensities?

  • 3 to 5 repetition bench press

  • Push-up test

  • Double-leg vertical jump

  • Skin-fold measurement

Correct answer: 3 to 5 repetition bench press

3 to 5 repetition bench press is correct because a one repetition maximum for this lift can be estimated from this test. This will then allow training intensities to be determined for the bench press exercise. Prescribing training intensities and loads during resistance training is imperative for achieving specific goals.

Push-up test is incorrect because training intensities cannot be derived from a muscular endurance test.

Double-leg vertical jump is incorrect because this measures total body bilateral power.

Skin-fold measurement is incorrect because these measurements are used to determine body composition.

135.

During the transitional phase of the snatch, where should the shoulders be?

  • Slightly in front of the bar

  • Extended in front of the bar

  • Slightly behind the bar

  • Extended behind the bar

Correct answer: Slightly in front of the bar

During the transitional phase of the snatch, the athlete's shoulders should be slightly in front of the bar.

The snatch is a complex Olympic lift that requires a combination of strength, power, and technique. The transitional phase is the second phase of the lift, in which the athlete moves from the first pull phase to the second pull phase.

To perform the transitional phase of the snatch, the athlete should keep the bar close to their body as they continue to lift it up past their knees. As they transition from the first pull to the second pull, the athlete should move their shoulders slightly in front of the bar, allowing them to generate maximum power and force.

By moving the shoulders slightly in front of the bar, the athlete can create a more efficient and powerful movement, which is crucial for successfully completing the lift. This position also allows the athlete to generate maximum momentum and speed as they move into the second pull phase.

136.

Your client is performing a dynamic warm-up using crab walks. Which plane of motion is this taking place in and what is the primary target muscle group?

  • Frontal / Abductors and adductors

  • Sagittal / Hamstrings and calves

  • Transverse / Lower back and glutes

  • Sagittal / Glutes and hamstrings

Correct answer: Frontal / Abductors and adductors

Your client's dynamic warm-up using crab walks primarily takes place in the frontal plane of motion, which is one of the three fundamental planes of motion in human anatomy. The frontal plane, also known as the coronal plane, divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections. During crab walks, your client moves laterally by stepping sideways in a squatting position, engaging multiple muscles and joints.

The primary target muscle group for the crab walk exercise is the hip abductors and adductors. The abductors include the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus, which are located on the outer part of the hips and are responsible for moving the legs away from the midline of the body. The adductors are a group of muscles on the inner part of the thighs, including the adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilis, and pectineus. These muscles are responsible for moving the legs toward the midline of the body.

Here are the three planes of motion:

  • Sagittal Plane: The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. Movements in this plane occur forward or backward along the midline of the body. Examples of sagittal plane movements include walking, running, and bicep curls.
  • Frontal Plane: The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves. Movements in this plane occur side-to-side or laterally. Examples of frontal plane movements include jumping jacks, side lunges, and lateral raises.
  • Transverse Plane: The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves. Movements in this plane occur horizontally, rotating around the vertical axis of the body. Examples of transverse plane movements include trunk rotation, twisting, and throwing a frisbee.

137.

Which of the following is best described as the cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the central nervous system?

  • Proprioception

  • Muscle hypertrophy

  • Motor unit synchronization

  • Eccentric muscle action

Correct answer: Proprioception

Proprioception is the sense of the body's position and movement in space, which is mediated by sensory receptors in the muscles, tendons, and joints. These sensory receptors, called proprioceptors, send neural signals to the central nervous system, providing information about the body's position, orientation, and movement.

The cumulative neural input from these sensory afferents is essential for the control of movement, as it allows the nervous system to accurately coordinate muscle activation and adjust movement patterns based on feedback from the environment. This feedback loop, which involves the integration of sensory input with motor output, is critical for maintaining balance and stability, as well as for performing skilled movements.

Muscle hypertrophy: The increase in muscle size and mass as a result of resistance training.

Motor unit synchronization: The simultaneous activation of multiple motor units, resulting in coordinated muscle contractions.

Eccentric muscle action: The lengthening of a muscle while it is under tension, typically during the lowering phase of a movement.

138.

Your client should drink 6 to 12 ounces of water or sports drink for every how many minutes of exercise?

  • 15-20 minutes of exercise

  • 20-25 minutes of exercise

  • 25-30 minutes of exercise

  • 30-35 minutes of exercise

Correct answer: 15-20 minutes of exercise

To maintain hydration during exercise, it is recommended that a client drinks 6 to 12 ounces of water or a sports drink every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise. This can help to prevent dehydration, maintain performance, and avoid negative effects on health. The exact amount of fluid needed may vary based on factors such as body weight, exercise intensity, and environmental conditions, but following these guidelines can be a good starting point for most clients.

139.

When working with female athletes, which of the following are the direct consequences of not consuming enough calcium and energy?

I. Hyponatremia

II. Decreased lean tissue

III. Amenorrhea

IV. Osteoporosis

  • III and IV only

  • I and III only

  • I and II only

  • II and IV only

Correct answer: III and IV only

III and IV only is correct because this describes the female triad, which is the interaction of disordered eating, amenorrhea and osteoporosis. This disordered eating can come in the form of either intentionally restricting caloric intake or simply failing to consume enough calories in relation to daily energy output. This energy imbalance is also likely to result in a lack of calcium intake that reaches recommended levels.

I and III only is incorrect because hyponatremia occurs due to a lack of sodium in an environment with too much hypotonic fluid.

I and II only is incorrect because these are not a part of the female triad.

II and IV only is incorrect because, although a loss of body weight is likely, it may not include lean tissue.

140.

A coach wanting to progress an athlete through agility and multi-directional speed exercises should choose exercises that emphasize qualities in which order?

  • Technique, speed, and reactive skills

  • Speed, technique, and reactive skills

  • Reactive skills, speed, and technique

  • Technique, reactive skills, and speed

Correct answer: Technique, speed, and reactive skills

Technique, speed, and reactive skills is correct because this emphasizes both the safety of the athlete and a hierarchy of needed proficiency. During the introduction of a movement acceleration, deceleration and change of directions are the emphasis. These drills are performed slowly, or even statically, at first before increases in movement velocity are added and these drills move from closed to open loop.

Speed, technique, and reactive skills is incorrect because drills should be performed from slow to fast only after technique has been established.

Reactive skills, speed, and technique is incorrect because this does not allow quality of movement to be emphasized before more difficult variables are added.

Technique, reactive skills, and speed is incorrect because drills should be increased in movement velocity before they become unpredictable.