NASM-PES Exam Questions

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141.

What is the MAIN purpose of proper posture?

  • Maintain enough structural efficiency to overcome constant forces

  • Secure normal length-tension relationships

  • Avoid postural distortions that can lead to strain

  • Promote tissue recovery

Correct answer: Maintain enough structural efficiency to overcome constant forces

Posture is considered the independent and interdependent alignment and function of all components of the Human Movement System. The MAIN purpose of proper posture is to maintain enough structural efficiency to overcome constant forces.

Structural efficiency is the alignment of the musculoskeletal system, which allows for your center of gravity to be maintained.

142.

Which of the following is the largest source of carbohydrate that can be found in the body?

  • Muscle glycogen

  • Liver glycogen

  • Blood glucose

  • All of these

Correct answer: Muscle glycogen

Muscle glycogen is correct because of the large volume of muscle mass compared to the size of the liver and the amount of blood. However, the concentration of glycogen within muscle tissue is not as great as that found in the liver. Muscle glycogen can be depleted within two hours of intense exercise.

Liver glycogen and blood glucose are incorrect because these structures do not have the same volume as muscle mass within the body.

143.

Alison is monitoring her water intake levels in order to improve her performance. What is the minimum amount of fluid she should consume on days in which she does not train?

  • 12 cups (96 oz) 

  • 16 cups (128 oz)

  • 8 cups (64 oz)

  • 24 cups (192 oz)

Correct answer: 12 cups (95 oz) 

12 cups (96 oz) is correct because this is the daily recommended intake for sedentary individuals. This amount will replace the fluid and sweat losses of daily living in an average climate (not hot and humid). Any exercise will increase this need due to increased heat production, metabolism and sweat losses.

16 cups (128 oz) is incorrect because this is the recommendation for a sedentary male.

8 cups (64 oz) is incorrect because this is an approximation of the fluid-only needs of a sedentary female; 20% of daily hydration comes from food.

24 cups (192 oz) is incorrect because this is twice the amount needed for a female who is not exercising, but may be appropriate for an active female.

144.

When performing a circumference measurement on the thigh, what is the correct position of the measuring tape?

  • Ten inches above the top of the patella

  • Centered between the patella and the greater trochanter

  • At the widest portion of the buttocks

  • At the maximal circumference of the thigh

Correct answer: Ten inches above the top of the patella

Ten inches above the top of the patella is correct because this position can be easily replicated since it uses an easy-to-find anatomical landmark. This will increase the accuracy and reliability of the measurement. Circumference measurements can assess initial girth and changes in girth that are related to changes in body composition.

Centered between the patella and the greater trochanter is incorrect because this can be difficult to measure with the patella on the anterior of the thigh and the greater trochanter on the lateral aspect.

At the widest portion of the buttocks is incorrect because this is the position of the tape measure in the hip measurement.

At the maximal circumference of the thigh is incorrect because this is a subjective position that may be difficult to replicate.

145.

You are creating a recovery program for a client. You want to focus on the neural and fascial systems, in particular. Which of the following recovery methods would be the most appropriate?

  • Self-myofascial release (SMR)

  • Dynamic stretching

  • Ballistic stretching

  • Static stretching

Correct answer: Self-myofascial release (SMR)

When creating a recovery program focused on the neural and fascial systems, incorporating self-myofascial release (SMR) techniques would be the most appropriate method. 

SMR, commonly performed using foam rollers or massage balls, aims to release tension and adhesions within the fascial network and stimulate the nervous system. 

This recovery method helps to improve soft-tissue extensibility, increase blood flow, enhance joint range of motion, and decrease muscle soreness. By addressing both the neural and fascial systems, SMR promotes overall recovery and supports the optimal musculoskeletal function.

146.

Your client is training to improve their golf swing. This means they will be spending a lot of time training in which plane of motion?

  • Transverse

  • Sagittal 

  • Frontal 

  • Vertical 

Correct answer: Transverse

Your client is training to improve their golf swing, which means they will be spending a significant amount of time training in the transverse plane of motion. 

A transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions. Movements in this plane occur primarily around the body's longitudinal axis and involve rotational actions, such as those found in the golf swing.

However, it is important to note the other two planes of motion as they relate to the golf swing.

  • Sagittal plane: The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. Movements in this plane involve flexion and extension, such as the bending and straightening of the knees and hips during the golf swing.
  • Frontal plane: The frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. Movements in this plane involve abduction and adduction, such as the lateral shifting of the body weight during the golf swing.

While the transverse plane is the primary focus for golf swing training, incorporating exercises that address all three planes of motion can help improve overall movement quality, stability, and power generation during the swing.

147.

You have a new client and you want to measure their dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control. Which of the following transitional postural assessments would be BEST to do that?

  • Overhead squat assessment

  • Pushing assessment

  • Pulling assessment

  • Sit-and-reach assessment

Correct answer: Overhead squat assessment

The overhead squat assessment is designed to measure dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control. It is considered one of the most reliable and valid measures of lower extremity movement patterns, as long as the following checkpoints are monitored:

  • Feet
  • Knees
  • Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip Complex (LPHC)
  • Shoulders
  • Head

148.

You are incorporating somatic anxiety reduction techniques into your athlete's program. Which of the following techniques involves tensing and relaxing specific muscle groups?

  • Progressive relaxation

  • Breath control

  • Relaxation response

  • Coping

Correct answer: Progressive relaxation

Progressive relaxation is considered one of the most important somatic anxiety reduction techniques. It involves tensing and relaxing specific muscles in a progressive manner from one major muscle group to another, until all muscle groups are completely relaxed.

This technique works to reduce physiological arousal associated with increased physical anxiety.

149.

Which of the following are the major sensory organs of the muscle?

  • Muscle spindles

  • Intrafusal fibers

  • Motor nerve

  • Muscle receptors

Correct answer: Muscle spindles

Muscle spindles are the major sensory organs of muscle tissue. They are composed of microscopic intrafusal fibers that lie parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibers.

These sensory organs are sensitive to change in length and rate of length change.

150.

Which of the following assessments would be ideal for a powerlifter who wants to estimate the one-repetition maximum on total body power?

  • Power clean assessment

  • Bench press assessment

  • 185 lb. squat

  • Pull-up assessment

Correct answer: Power clean assessment

The power clean assessment is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum on total body power, making it ideal for determining the training intensities of Olympic lifts.

To perform the power clean assessment, have the athlete warm up with a light resistance for 8–10 reps.

Provide the athlete with a one-minute rest break before adding 30–40 pounds to the load and having them perform 3–5 reps.

This time, give the athlete two minutes to rest.

30–40 more pounds should be added, and an attempt at a one-rep maximum should be made. If the athlete is successful, they rest for 2–4 minutes and then try again—repeating this pattern until they are not able to perform the movement with good form.

151.

Which of the following exercises would be optimal for increasing the rate of force production?

  • Kettlebell clean and jerk

  • Single-leg deadlift

  • Landmine row

  • Lunge to overhead press

Correct answer: Kettlebell clean and jerk

The kettlebell clean and jerk is an optimal exercise for increasing the rate of force production and muscular power. This complex, multi-joint movement involves explosive actions that help develop power, strength, and coordination. 

The clean portion of the exercise emphasizes force production in the hips, glutes, and hamstrings, while the jerk portion further engages the shoulders, triceps, and core muscles. 

By training these muscle groups to work synergistically, you can effectively improve the rate of force production and enhance overall athletic performance. Additionally, the kettlebell clean and jerk challenges the neuromuscular system, promoting better recruitment of motor units and increasing the efficiency of movement patterns.

The other exercises are not explosive movements and do not focus on increasing the rate of force production and muscular power. These exercises are better for other phases of the OPT Model, such as hypertrophy, strength, and endurance.

152.

When taking the carotid pulse, which of the following factors are NOT required?

  • Test must be performed after a battery of performance assessments

  • Touch should be gentle

  • Test must be taken when athlete is calm

  • All similar assessments must be taken at the same time

Correct answer: Test must be performed after a battery of performance assessments

When taking the carotid pulse, the trainer must make sure the following conditions are met:

  • Touch should be gentle
  • Test must be taken when athlete is calm
  • All similar assessments (e.g., radial pulse) must be taken at the same time

The test should NOT be performed after a battery of performance assessments; rather, this is a type of physiological assessment that needs to be taken BEFORE any type of body composition and performance assessment.

153.

An athlete performs one set of the first exercise for the required repetitions and then moves on to the next exercise for the second set, followed by the third exercise for the third set, and so on. Once all exercises have been completed one time, the athlete returns to the first exercise and begins again. This is an example of which of the following?

  • Vertical loading

  • Horizontal loading

  • Stabilization loading

  • Dynamic loading

Correct answer: Vertical loading

Vertical loading is a resistance training system used by NASM, and it follows the Optimum Performance Training model. The idea is to progress a workout vertically, down the template of the program. The trainer would alternate body parts trained from set to set.

In a vertically loaded workout, an athlete performs one set of the first exercise for the required repetitions and then moves on to the next exercise for the second set, followed by the third exercise for the third set, and so on. Once all exercises have been completed one time, the athlete returns to the first exercise and begins again.

This type of training is done to minimize the rest periods in between sets.

154.

Which vitamin deficiency has become a concern because people are spending less time outside while also using more sunscreen?

  • Vitamin D

  • Vitamin A

  • Vitamin E

  • Vitamin C

Correct answer: Vitamin D

Vitamin D deficiency has become a concern because people are spending less time outside and using more sunscreen, which can reduce the body's ability to synthesize vitamin D from sunlight. 

Vitamin D is essential for bone health and a deficiency can lead to an increased risk of fractures, rickets (in children), and osteomalacia (in adults). 

It is recommended that individuals with limited sun exposure or inadequate dietary intake of vitamin D consider taking a supplement to maintain adequate vitamin D levels.

155.

A Sports Performance Coach is designing sports performance testing for a cross-country running athlete. Which of the following tests is the least appropriate to use with this athlete?

  • 3 to 5 repetition bench press

  • 1-mile run

  • Overhead squat test

  • Medical history

Correct answer: 3 to 5 repetition bench press

3 to 5 repetition bench press is correct because upper body strength is typically not a limiting factor in endurance running athletes. In order to aid an athlete in improving their performance, a Sports Performance Coach should choose tests that relate to the needs and abilities of the athlete's chosen sport. It is also important to ensure the safety of the athlete during the testing session.

1-mile run is incorrect because cardiorespiratory fitness is imperative to an endurance athlete.

Overhead squat test is incorrect because determining muscle imbalances can be useful for any athlete.

Medical history is incorrect because this can give insight into previous injuries or training to better prescribe future training.

156.

Which common vitamin may help to reduce muscle soreness and prevent damage induced by exercise-associated oxidative stress?

  • Vitamin C

  • Vitamin E

  • Vitamin A

  • Vitamin B12

Correct answer: Vitamin C

Vitamin C is a potent antioxidant that is essential for the growth, development, and repair of body tissues. It plays a crucial role in the immune system's function and aids in the absorption of iron from plant-based foods. Recent research has suggested that Vitamin C may also play a role in reducing muscle soreness and damage induced by exercise-associated oxidative stress. It is recommended that athletes consume sufficient quantities of Vitamin C-rich foods or supplements to support optimal recovery and performance.

157.

All of the following nutrients are examples of antioxidants except:

  • Vitamin D

  • Vitamin E

  • Vitamin C

  • Selenium

Correct answer: Vitamin D

Vitamin D is not an antioxidant. It is a fat-soluble vitamin that helps the body absorb calcium and maintain bone health. 

Antioxidants are substances that help protect the body from free radicals, which are unstable molecules that can damage cells and contribute to the development of chronic diseases. Examples of antioxidants include vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, selenium, and flavonoids.

158.

If you are training a client who plays hockey, which of the following sport-specific drills would not be relevant to their sport?

  • Reverse calf raises

  • Resisted knee drives

  • Supine heel pushes

  • Lateral tube walking

Correct answer: Reverse calf raises

Reverse calf raises would not be a relevant sport-specific drill for a hockey player. The primary reason is that reverse calf raises target the tibialis anterior muscle, which plays a lesser role in the specific movement patterns and muscle recruitment required for hockey.

Hockey is a sport that relies heavily on lower body strength, balance, and coordination for skating, as well as upper body and core strength for stickhandling, shooting, and body checking. 

A sport-specific training program for hockey players should focus on exercises and drills that address the unique demands of the sport and contribute to improvements in skating speed, agility, explosiveness, and overall performance. Examples of these drills include resisted knee drives, supine heel pushes, and lateral tube walking.

159.

Performing a bench press followed immediately by a bent over row focuses on what type of training program?

  • Supersetting antagonist muscle groups

  • Supersetting agonist muscle groups

  • Push vs. pull programming

  • Power vs. strength programming

Correct answer: Supersetting antagonist muscle groups

Performing a bench press followed immediately by a bent-over row focuses on a type of training program known as supersetting antagonist muscle groups. This training method targets opposing muscle groups (agonist and antagonist) in back-to-back exercises, allowing for increased efficiency and a balanced workout.

In the case of the bench press and bent-over row combination:

  1. Bench press: This exercise targets the chest (pectoralis major) and triceps (triceps brachii) muscles, which are the agonist muscles. The bench press primarily involves pushing movements.
  2. Bent-over row: This exercise focuses on the upper back (latissimus dorsi and rhomboids) and biceps (biceps brachii) muscles, which are the antagonist muscles to the chest and triceps. The bent-over row primarily involves pulling movements.

By supersetting these exercises, you can effectively work opposing muscle groups and promote balanced muscle development. This method also helps improve workout efficiency, as one muscle group can recover while the other is being worked, allowing for shorter rest periods between sets. Moreover, supersetting antagonist muscle groups can lead to enhanced performance, as the activation of one muscle group can improve the force generation capabilities of its opposing muscle group.

Supersetting agonist muscle groups involves performing two exercises targeting the same muscle group back-to-back with minimal rest.

A push vs. pull program is a workout split that organizes exercises into two categories, with "push" workouts targeting muscles involved in pushing movements (e.g., chest, shoulders, triceps) and "pull" workouts focusing on muscles responsible for pulling movements (e.g., back, biceps), ensuring balanced muscle development and efficient training sessions.

Power vs. strength programming distinguishes between training for maximal force production (strength) using heavier loads and slower movements, and training for the ability to generate force rapidly (power) using lighter loads with explosive movements, targeting different aspects of athletic performance.

160.

Which of the following lower body strength exercises should be performed with minimal knee flexion?

  • Romanian deadlift

  • Leg press

  • Sagittal plane lunge

  • Barbell squat

Correct answer: Romanian deadlift

Romanian deadlift is correct because this exercise focuses on hip flexion during the downward phase of the movement with a stable spine and involves only a small amount of knee flexion. The movement involved in this exercise is also referred to as a hip hinge. This strength exercise emphasizes improving the force production abilities of the major hip extensors, the gluteus maximus, and the hamstrings.

Leg press, sagittal plane lunge, and barbell squat are incorrect because all these exercises involve a significant amount of knee flexion, along with hip flexion, to reach the bottom position.