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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT AEMT Exam Questions

Page 5 of 45

81.

Post-Scene

 Which of the following are appropriate treatments to administer for this patient during transport?

Select the 2 answer options that are correct.

  • Administer IV fluid bolus

  • Keep the patient warm to avoid hypothermia

  • Apply moist sterile dressings to the burns

  • Assure adequate ventilation based on SpO2 levels

This patient has 31.5% TBSA using the rule of 9s and needs fluid resuscitation. Using the Consensus formula (2-4mL x 70kg x 31.5% TBSA), she would require a fluid of up to 4400 mL in the first 8 hours. You should administer a fluid bolus during transport to begin fluid resuscitation. Burn patients are at risk for hypothermia, and precautions to prevent it should be taken. 

Use dry, sterile dressings for burns. Wet dressings may precipitate hypothermia. This patient has inhalation burns and smoke inhalation and most likely has carbon monoxide poisoning. CO can cause false SpO2 readings, and they should be considered unreliable for smoke inhalation patients. Use EtCO2 as a guide for ventilation instead.

82.

Which of the following is not considered a common cause of heart failure? 

  • Stroke

  • Renal disease

  • Uncontrolled hypertension

  • Heart valve damage 

Correct answer: Stroke 

Stroke is an occlusion or rupture of a blood vessel in the brain. The risk of stroke is increased in people with heart disease, but it is not a common cause of heart failure. Heart failure occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Hypertension, heart valve damage, and renal diseases are common causes of heart failure. 

83.

The central region of the thorax, containing the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, and mainstem bronchi, is called which of the following?

  • Mediastinum

  • Pericardium

  • Pleurae

  • Sternum

Correct answer: Mediastinum

The anatomic region located between the lungs that contains all the principal tissues and organs of the chest except the lungs is the mediastinum.

The pericardium is the sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels. The pleurae are the sacs surrounding each lung and attach the lungs to the thoracic cavity. The sternum is a long flat bone located in the center of the chest. It connects to the ribs via cartilage and forms the front of the rib cage, thus helping to protect the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from injury.

84.

You arrive on the scene of an infant who was thought to be choking on something and is now unresponsive. What should you do? 

  • Begin chest compressions

  • Attempt to ventilate 

  • Administer back blows 

  • Suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter

Correct answer: Begin chest compressions 

The correct management of an infant that is unresponsive from choking is to begin chest compressions. Back blows are indicated in a responsive infant that is choking. It is not advised to use a rigid suction catheter to suction an infant, but use a bulb suction device. 

85.

Which of the following can be used to differentiate cardiogenic shock from hypovolemic shock?

  • Jugular venous distension

  • Warm, flushed skin

  • Cool, clammy skin

  • Thirst

Correct answer: Jugular venous distension

Jugular venous distension can be used to differentiate cardiogenic shock from hypovolemic shock. In cardiogenic shock, the pump has failed, resulting in a buildup of fluid in the lungs, the right heart, the vena cava, and the jugular veins. If the patient were hypovolemic, the jugular veins would be flat.

Warm, flushed skin is an indication of distributive shock. Thirst and cool, clammy skin is seen in both cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock.

86.

Which patient best meets the requirement for AED use?

  • 67-year-old in cardiac arrest

  • 13-year-old unresponsive traumatic asphyxiation

  • 23-year-old unresponsive opioid overdose

  • Eight-week-old obvious death with suspected SIDS 

Correct answer: 67-year-old in cardiac arrest.

The only indication for application of an AED is a patient greater than one year of age who is unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. AED's are not indicated in patients with obvious death. Being unresponsive is not an indication for AED placement. Patients must be unresponsive, pulseless, and not breathing for AED use. 

87.

Which of the following is not a reason for you to stop CPR pre-hospital once you have started it?

  • A family member states the patient has a DNR

  • You are out of strength and cannot physically continue CPR

  • A physician orders you to stop or assumes responsibility for the patient

  • The patient's care is transferred to another provider or higher level of care

Correct answer: A family member states the patient has a DNR

Once you begin CPR in the field, you must continue until one of the following events occur (STOP pneumonic) 

  • S: The patient Starts breathing and has a pulse
  • T: The patient's care is Transferred to another provider or higher level of care
  • O: You are Out of strength and cannot physically continue CPR
  • P: A Physician orders you to stop or assumes responsibility for the patient

If a family member states there is a DNR, you must actually see the valid DNR and obtain permission to terminate efforts from online medical control. 

88.

A condition of sudden onset of abdominal pain is known as which of the following?

  • Acute abdomen

  • Pericarditis

  • Inferior myocardial infarction

  • Pleurisy

Correct answer: Acute abdomen

An acute abdomen can represent a spectrum of conditions from benign and self-limited disease to surgical emergencies. Evaluating abdominal pain requires an approach that relies on the likelihood of disease, patient history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies. The location of pain is a useful starting point and will guide further evaluation. Sudden-onset pain is characteristic of a wide range of problems, including pancreatitis, biliary colic, acute mechanical intestinal obstruction, and mesenteric ischemia.

Acute abdominal tenderness and distention indicates an irritation of the peritoneum, or peritonitis, and can be caused by numerous diseases as well as infection and penetrating or blunt force abdominal trauma.

Pericarditis is an irritation of the parietal pleura adjacent to the pericardium. Severe, sharp, knife-like pain that may radiate to the shoulder and to the neck is usually persistent and may be aggravated by breathing, lying down, or coughing. Sitting forward may alleviate the pain.

Inferior myocardial infarction usually presents as retrosternal pain, but, atypically, it can radiate to the upper abdomen. Women are more likely to present with atypical symptoms, but it is generally described as discomfort rather than pain and as a tightness or heaviness, pressing or squeezing. A myocardial infarction may present with nausea and abdominal discomfort. While severe pain is often present, sharp pain is not associated with an MI.

Pleurisy can result in pleural pain due to an inflammation of the parietal pleura, which results in pain of the chest wall overlying the process. It is also frequently sharp and knife-like, severe and persistent. Lying on the side of the inflammation may relieve the discomfort.

89.

The best way to identify the appropriate-sized equipment for a pediatric patient is which of the following?

  • Length-based resuscitation tape

  • The patient's weight

  • Protocols

  • The patient's age

Correct answer: Length-based resuscitation tape 

The best way to identify the appropriate-sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to use length-based resuscitation tape.

90.

In an older patient, the first signs of nontraumatic internal hemorrhage may be which of the following?

  • Dizziness, syncope, or weakness

  • Tachycardia, dyspnea, or altered mental status

  • Dizziness, tachycardia, or confusion

  • Tachycardia, weakness, or confusion

Correct answer: Dizziness, syncope, or weakness

In older patients, dizziness, syncope, or weakness may be the first sign of nontraumatic internal hemorrhaging. Remember that vital signs vary depending on age. What is normal for an adult patient will not be normal for a pediatric patient. Older adult patients are more likely to take medications such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and other antidysrhythmics, which interfere with normal compensatory mechanisms.

91.

Your 32-year-old-male patient is complaining of difficulty breathing and chest pain. He says it began suddenly about 30 minutes ago while driving and reports his pain as sharp and stabbing on the right side, just above the 6th rib, midclavicular. His lung sounds are clear and neck veins are flat. He has no known medical history, and takes no medication. BP 94/70; HR 118; SpO2 90%; RR 32. Which of the following should you suspect? 

  • Pulmonary embolism 

  • Acute coronary syndrome

  • Spontaneous pneumothorax

  • Tension pneumothorax 

Correct answer: Pulmonary embolism 

A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot in a pulmonary artery. Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, sudden onset of sharp chest pain, hypoxia, hematopsis, and signs of shock. Care includes oxygen, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, IV access, and rapid transport to an appropriate facility. 

While acute coronary syndrome can be suspected, the patient's age and the characteristics of the chest pain make it unlikely. 

A pneumothorax is unlikely in this patient because lung sounds are normal, and signs of a tension pneumothorax would result in absent lung sounds. 

92.

Which of the following is a condition of hyperactive reflexes in the presence of severe preeclampsia?

  • Myoclonus

  • Eclampsia

  • Grand multipara

  • Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: Myoclonus

Myoclonus is a condition of hyperactive reflexes and occurs during severe preeclampsia.

Eclampsia is a condition of convulsions or seizures resulting from severe hypertension during pregnancy. Grand multipara describes a person who has delivered five or more viable infants. Hyperemesis gravidarum is persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

93.

Which of the following Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values is outside of the normal range?

  • PaCO2: 55 mmHg

  • pH: 7.36

  • PaO2: 90

  • SaO2: 95%

Correct answer: PaCO2: 55 mmHg

PaCO2 measures the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Any deviation from the normal range indicates the carbon dioxide is not efficiently moving from the bloodstream to the lungs. A typical range for a PaCO2 test is 35–45 mm Hg.

pH measures how acidic, base, or neutral the patient's blood is. pH specifically measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in the bloodstream. Any value less than 7.35 is considered acidic, while any value of 7.45 is considered base. Any value between 7.35 and 7.45 is considered normal.

PaO2 is the measurement of the partial pressure of oxygen in a patient's bloodstream. A PaO2 evaluates the concentration of oxygen molecules dissolved in the blood's plasma; it does not indicate the total amount of oxygen in the body.

SaO2 on an ABG indicates the patient's oxygen saturation, specifically the amount of hemoglobin bound to oxygen molecules. SaO2 differs from PaO2, as PaO2 is a measurement of oxygen unbound to hemoglobin and dissolved into the bloodstream.

94.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis?

  • Cough

  • Urticaria

  • Generalized edema

  • Laryngeal edema with dyspnea

Correct answer: Cough

The signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis include flushed skin or hives (urticaria), generalized edema, hypotension, laryngeal edema with dyspnea, and wheezing or stridor.

95.

Which of the following is complete cessation of electrical and mechanical functional cardiac activity?

  • Cardiac arrest 

  • Cardiogenic shock 

  • Heart failure 

  • Acute coronary syndrome 

Correct answer: Cardiac arrest 

Cardiac arrest is the complete cessation of electrical and mechanical functional cardiac activity. It is indicated in the field by the absence of a pulse. Cardiogenic shock is the type of shock caused by inadequate function of the heart. Heart failure is the inability of the ventricles to keep up the demand for blood flow to the body. The heart will still have electrical and mechanical activity in cardiogenic shock and heart failure. Acute coronary syndrome is a term used to describe a range of conditions associated with sudden, reduced blood flow to the heart. 

96.

Your patient is a 67-year-old male who reports an abrupt onset of severe chest pain that radiates to his right shoulder blade. He described the pain as a tearing sensation. He has a history of hypertension, Type 2 diabetes, and prostate disease. He appears anxious and has pale skin. You note a difference between pulse strength in his left arm versus his right arm. His vitals are BP 190/92; HR 128; RR 20; SpO2 94%. What do you suspect? 

  • Dissecting thoracic aneurysm

  • Acute coronary syndrome

  • Gall stones

  • Pancreatitis 

Correct answer: Dissecting thoracic aneurysm

This patient is exhibiting the classic signs and symptoms of a dissected aortic aneurysm. The biggest difference between pain characteristics of an AMI (Acute Myocardial Infarction) and dissection is the pain in dissections is usually described as tearing, sharp, abrupt onset, and radiating to or from the back and shoulder blades. 

Gallstones and pancreatitis present with abdominal pain and nausea and do not typically present with chest pain radiating to the shoulders. 

97.

Death of cardiac tissue as a result of impaired circulation is which of the following?

  • Acute myocardial infarction

  • Pericarditis

  • Pericardial tamponade

  • Myocardial contusion

Correct answer: Acute myocardial infarction

Acute myocardial infarction is an acute obstruction of a coronary artery resulting in myocardial necrosis. Symptoms include substernal chest pain or discomfort with or without dyspnea, nausea, and diaphoresis. Diagnosis is by ECG and the presence or absence of cardiac biomarkers.

Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, frequently occurring with an accumulation of fluid; it is caused by many disorders, including infection, Myocardial Infarction (MI), trauma, tumors, and metabolic disorders, but is often of unknown etiology.

Pericardial (or cardiac) tamponade is the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac that impairs cardiac filling and function. Presentation typically includes hypotension, muffled heart tones, and distended neck veins.

Myocardial contusion is a bruise to the heart, usually a consequence of blunt trauma to the anterior chest wall.

98.

Your patient is a 56-year-old male who called 911 from a homeless shelter. The staff there reports that he is a known alcoholic. He reports abdominal pain, vomiting, and shaking of his hands and arms. You note that he is thin with a slightly distended abdomen and rhinophyma. What should the AEMT suspect? 

  • Alcohol withdrawal

  • Hepatitis 

  • Pancreatitis 

  • Hypothermia 

Correct answer: Alcohol withdrawal

A distended abdomen, rhinophyma, and malnourishment are common physical characteristics of alcoholism. The AEMT should suspect alcohol withdrawal. Signs and symptoms include:

  • Agitation/ anxiety
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Tremors
  • Hypertension
  • Hallucinations
  • Seizures

Hepatitis and pancreatitis are common in patients with alcoholism, but the tremors in the patient's hands and arms are characteristic of withdrawal. A core body temperature is used to determine hypothermia, and there is no indication from the information provided that he is hypothermic. 

99.

En-Route

Which of the following information should EMS crews monitor and document for HAZMAT crew member entry readiness?

Select the 3 answer options which are correct.

  • Blood pressure

  • Respiratory rate

  • Body weight

  • Blood glucose level

  • End-tidal CO2 level

Before entering the hot zone, you or other EMS crew members must assess rescuers and document the following information on an incident flow sheet:

  • blood pressure
  • pulse
  • respiratory rate
  • temperature
  • body weight
  • ECG (if paramedic unit)
  • mental/neurologic status

All hazmat team members should undergo regular annual physical examinations with baseline vital signs placed on file. If you observe anything abnormal, do not allow the hazmat team member to attempt a rescue.

Blood glucose and end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) levels are not entry-level readiness parameters that are evaluated.

100.

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?

  • Pale, cool, moist skin

  • Failure of heat-regulating mechanisms

  • Altered mental status

  • Absent muscle cramps

Correct answer: Pale, cool, moist skin

Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion are sodium and water loss; hypovolemia; normal mental status or mild confusion; mildly elevated temperature; and pale, cool, or moist skin. It may or may not present with muscle cramping. 

Failure of heat-regulating mechanisms resulting in altered mental status and absent muscle cramps are signs of heat stroke. 

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