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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT AEMT Exam Questions

Page 6 of 45

101.

Scene

Based on the information in this scenario, which of the following would represent the field impression and most appropriate intervention for this patient?

  • Hypoglycemia; Administer dextrose IV

  • Hypoglycemia; Administer oral glucose

  • Hyperglycemia; Administer Glucagon IM

  • Unintentional overdose of narcotic; Administer Narcan (naloxone) IN

Correct answer: Hypoglycemia; Administer dextrose IV

This patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Because he has an altered mental status, blurred vision, and clammy skin, you can assume his blood glucose level is very low. IV dextrose is the most appropriate management for this patient.

Oral glucose will not be as effective and reliable as IV. Glucagon is only used for hypoglycemia. There is no sign that this is a narcotic overdose, so Narcan would be ineffective.

102.

Which of the following is not a primary function of bandaging and dressing wounds?

  • Permit motion of the injured extremity

  • Control bleeding

  • Protect the wound from further damage

  • Prevent further contamination and infection

Correct answer: Permit motion of the injured extremity

Dressing and bandaging materials are used to cover wounds, control bleeding, and limit motion. A dressing directly covers a wound and controls bleeding; the bandage keeps the dressing in place. Bandaging and dressing wounds should limit the movement of injured extremities and are often used in conjunction with splinting.

103.

You respond to a 911 for an adult male who has collapsed at a construction site. On scene, you find an adult male who is pulseless and apneic. Bystander CPR was not administered. Which of the following actions should be taken first? 

  • Start chest compressions 

  • Place an AED

  • Give 2 rescue breaths with a bag mask device

  • Give 2 rescue breaths with a pocket mask

Correct answer: Start chest compressions 

You should immediately begin chest compressions, and administer 30 compressions before giving rescue breaths with a pocket mask or bag mask. Place the AED as soon as possible without interrupting chest compressions. 

104.

An electric/gas hybrid vehicle uses a high voltage system that may still be energized for up to how long after the system is disabled? 

  • 10 minutes 

  • 60 minutes 

  • 120 seconds

  • 90 seconds

Correct answer: 10 minutes 

Although each type of electric drive or hybrid vehicle is different, disabling of the power system is essential to ensure safety. This should only be attempted by trained personnel. The system in these vehicles may remain energized for up to 10 minutes after being disabled. 

105.

Which of the following can cause artifacts in ECG monitoring? 

Select the three answer choices that are correct 

  • Patient breathing

  • Movement of the ambulance 

  • Muscle tremors or shivering 

  • Bright ambient light 

  • Patient pulselessness 

Artifacts are interference with ECG cardiac monitoring tracing. Patient breathing, movement, muscle tremors or shivering can cause artifacts. Movement or vibrations of the ambulance frequently cause ECG artifacts. Bright ambient light has no effect on ECG tracing, and patient pulselessness does not cause artifacts. 

106.

Which of the following is not a good technique for avoiding being struck by lightning?

  • Stand under or near the tallest object that is a good conductor.

  • Don't be the tallest object that is a good conductor.

  • Take shelter in the most substantial structure.

  • Avoid touching good conductors during an electrical storm.

Correct answer: Stand under or near the tallest object that is a good conductor

Standing under or near the tallest object that is a good conductor is a very bad idea.

Here are the four basic techniques to avoid being struck by lightning during an electrical storm:

Rule 1: Don't be the tallest object that is a good conductor.

Rule 2: Don't stand under or near the tallest object that is a good conductor.

Rule 3: Take shelter in the most substantial structure in which you can remain safe if it is hit by lightning.

Rule 4: Avoid touching good conductors during a lightning storm.

107.

Dissection or rupture of the aorta due to sudden deceleration trauma is known which of the following?

  • Traumatic aortic disruption

  • Aortic dissection

  • Aortic aneurysm

  • Atelectasis

Correct answer: Traumatic aortic disruption

Traumatic aortic rupture, also called traumatic aortic disruption or transection, is a condition in which the aorta is torn or ruptured as a result of trauma. It is the second-most common cause of death associated with motor vehicle accidents; head injury is the leading cause of death. Aortic dissection is one type of aortic disruption.

An aortic aneurysm is an enlargement of a portion of the aorta to greater than 1.5 times the normal size. These are typically asymptomatic until they rupture. Atelectasis is the collapse or closure of alveoli, resulting in impaired gas exchange.

108.

Your patient complains of lower right quadrant abdominal pain that began around the navel. You note that the patient also experiences rebound tenderness during your physical exam. What is this patient most likely suffering from?

  • Appendicitis

  • Cholecystitis

  • An ulcer

  • Diverticulitis

Correct answer: Appendicitis

The appendix is a small section of the large intestine which serves no known purpose. The inflammation or infection of the appendix, known as appendicitis, is a frequent cause of acute abdominal pain. Patients with appendicitis report dull pain around the naval that travels to the right lower quadrant over time. Rebound tenderness is one of the most reliable symptoms that can indicate appendicitis.

Cholecystitis, or gallbladder inflammation, is associated with right shoulder and upper right quadrant pain. Often, patients with cholecystitis will have a significant rise in their body temperature due to the infection and inflammatory process.

An ulcer results from high acidity levels in the gastrointestinal system, causing breakdowns in the stomach lining and duodenum. Ulcers result in midline, upper abdominal pain, or upper back pain.

Diverticulitis occurs when small pouches of the intestine along the colon become inflamed and infected. This results in lower left abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and vomiting.

109.

A mass shooting occurred at a very large outdoor concert, and law enforcement has terminated the shooter. There are reports of dozens of casualties. Which of the following positions would be established in the EMS/Medical branch, under the EMS Branch director/commander?

Select the four answer choices that are correct. 

  • Triage Supervisor

  • Transportation Supervisor 

  • Staging Supervisor

  • Treatment Supervisor

  • Supply and Logistics Commander

  • Resources Supervisor

The EMS branch at a mass casualty event will have the following groups, with each group having a supervisor:

  • Triage
  • Treatment
  • Transportation
  • Staging

Supplies and resources would be included in the logistics branch of the incident command system. 

110.

Which portion of the brain is responsible for voluntary motor action and personality traits?

  • Frontal lobe

  • Occipital lobe

  • Temporal lobe

  • Parietal lobe

Correct answer: Frontal lobe

The frontal lobe is responsible for voluntary motor action and personality traits. Injury to this area may result in seizures or a flat affect.

The cerebral cortex is divided into four main lobes: 1.) the frontal lobe is involved in conscious thought and higher mental functions such as decision-making, 2.) the parietal lobe is involved in integrating sensory information from the various senses and in the manipulation of objects in determining spatial sense and navigation, 3.) the temporal lobe involves the senses of smell and sound and processing of semantics in both speech and vision, and 4.) the occipital lobe is mainly involved with the sense of sight.

111.

Your patient is a 23-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a tonic-clonic seizure that has lasted for 15 minutes. This would be known as which of the following?

  • Status epilepticus

  • Postictal 

  • Grand mal seizure

  • Partial seizure 

Correct answer: Status epilepticus

A seizure that lasts longer than 4-5 minutes or consecutive seizures without return of responsiveness is known as status epilepticus. 

The postictal phase refers to the period after a seizure in which the patient appears lucid and will gradually improve.

A grand mal seizure is a tonic-clonic seizure that involves the entire body.

A partial, or focal seizure, affects only a portion of the brain and can manifest in many ways.

112.

Your patient has a tracheostomy and requires high flow oxygen administration. Your unit does not carry tracheostomy masks. What should be used to deliver oxygen for this patient? 

  • A face mask 

  • A nasal cannula 

  • Oxygen tubing placed into the stoma

  • A bag mask device 

Correct answer: A face mask 

If you need to deliver oxygen to a patient with a tracheostomy and do not have a tracheostomy mask, a face mask can be used to deliver oxygen.

Nasal cannulas do not deliver high flow oxygen.

Never place oxygen tubing into a stoma.

A bag mask device would be used for ventilation, not just oxygen delivery. 

113.

When is hyperventilation recommended for a patient in cardiac arrest? 

  • Hyperventilation is never recommended for a patient in cardiac arrest

  • In suspected opioid overdose patients

  • In patients with severe acidosis

  • In patients with severe hypoxia

Correct answer: Hyperventilation is never recommended for a patient in cardiac arrest

Hyperventilation causes increased intrathoracic pressure, and can reduce blood flow to the heart. This would reduce the effectiveness of CPR and increase the risk of gastric distention. Give slow, gentle ventilation while providing positive pressure ventilations. 

114.

Of the following people on scene, who should be assigned to perform primary triage in a mass casualty event? 

  • Firefighter who is EMR certified

  • An EMT with the first ambulance on scene

  • A paramedic with the first ambulance on scene

  • An EMS physician who arrives on scene

Correct answer: Firefighter who is EMR certified

Primary triage is the initial triage done in the field, sorting, and categorizing patients. The person assigned to triage should be the lowest level EMS provider, while higher level providers can establish treatment areas and perform secondary triage of patients who arrive in the treatment area. Of the people available, the firefighter would be the ideal person to perform primary triage. The paramedic and physician would be assigned to a treatment area, and the EMT will most likely be assigned as a staging officer or similar role. 

115.

Your 23-year-old female patient was found unresponsive in the break room at work. She has snoring respirations and equal/reactive pupils. There is a medicine bottle in her purse that indicates she is taking carbamazepine (Tegratol). Her coworkers are unaware of any medical conditions she may have, but she has not worked there long. Vital signs are BP 122/84; HR 112; RR 10; SpO2 91%. What should the AEMT suspect? 

  • She is postictal from a seizure 

  • An opioid overdose 

  • A hemorrhagic stroke 

  • Alcohol withdrawal 

Correct answer: She is postictal from a seizure 

This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of a postictal state after a generalized seizure, and Tegratol is used to manage seizures. This should lead the AEMT to suspect that she is postictal from a seizure. Treatment should be to ensure an open airway, administer supplemental oxygen as needed, and obtain blood glucose level. She does not exhibit signs of opioid use, alcohol withdrawal, or a stroke. 

116.

Damage to what cerebral lobe can affect vision? 

  • Occipital lobe

  • Frontal lobe

  • Parietal lobe

  • Temporal lobe

Correct answer: Occipital lobe

The occipital lobe is mainly involved with the sense of sight.

The cerebral cortex is divided into four main lobes: 1.) the frontal lobe is involved in conscious thought and higher mental functions such as decision-making, 2.) the parietal lobe is involved in integrating sensory information from the various senses and in the manipulation of objects in determining spatial sense and navigation, 3.) the temporal lobe involves the senses of smell and sound and processing of semantics in both speech and vision, and 4.) the occipital lobe is mainly involved with the sense of sight.

117.

A 19-year-old male with a one-year history of delusions, hallucinations, flat affect, and erratic speech most likely has which of the following?

  • Schizophrenia

  • Manic depressive illness

  • Organic brain syndrome

  • Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: Schizophrenia

Schizophrenia is a complex, difficult-to-identify mental disorder with onset typically occurring during early adulthood. Dysfunctional symptoms usually become more prominent over time and include delusions, hallucinations, apathy, mutism, flat affect, and a lack of interest in pleasure. Other signs include erratic speech, exaggerated emotional responses, and abnormal motor behavior.

Manic depressive illness is a bipolar disorder in which mood fluctuates between depression and mania. Organic brain syndrome is a temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain caused by a disturbance in the physical or physiological functioning. PostTraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a severe form of anxiety that stems from a traumatic experience. PTSD is characterized by the reliving of the stress and having nightmares about the original situation.

118.

Which of the following radiological particles cannot move through most objects?

  • Alpha

  • Beta 

  • Gamma

  • Neutron 

Correct answer: Alpha 

Alpha particles are the least harmful radiological particles. They cannot move through most objects, and minimal PPE may protect from exposure to Alpha particles. Beta particles are slightly more penetrable and require a layer of protective clothing to stop them. Gamma and neutron radiation are more powerful forms of radiation and can penetrate even the thickest materials.

119.

Scene

Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate for this patient?

  • IV fluid administration

  • Epinephrine (Adrenaline) administration

  • High-flow oxygen administration via NRB mask

  • Aspirin administration

Correct answer: IV fluid administration

This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of sepsis, which meningitis is frequently associated with in children. This patient requires IV fluid administration. A 20 mL/kg bolus should be the initial dose.

Oxygen administration may help this patient's condition, but signs of hypoxia are not present, so low flow with a nasal cannula would be more appropriate than high flow with a NRB mask.

AEMTs may administer epinephrine for cardiac arrest, severe asthma, or anaphylaxis. None of these conditions are occurring in this patient.

Never give aspirin to treat a fever in pediatric patients. It could cause a rare condition called Reye's syndrome. AEMT's are permitted to administer aspirin to adult patients with suspected acute coronary syndromes only.

120.

The metabolic acidotic state that manifests as a result of inadequate nutritional habits associated with chronic alcohol abuse is called which of the following?

  • Alcoholic ketoacidosis

  • Lactic acidosis

  • Ketoacidosis

  • Renal tubular acidosis

Correct answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis

The metabolic acidotic state that manifests as a result of inadequate nutritional habits associated with chronic alcohol abuse is alcoholic ketoacidosis. Ingesting 30 mL of methanol or ethylene glycol can also induce a fatal acidosis.

Lactic acidosis is a result of anaerobic cellular respiration, which occurs when tissues are inadequately perfused as in shock, compartment syndrome, or cardiac arrest.

Ketoacidosis is associated with insulin deficiency or insensitivity, resulting from fatty acid metabolism and the chemical byproduct, ketones.

Renal tubular acidosis is a disease that occurs when the kidneys fail to excrete acids into the urine, which causes a person's blood to remain too acidic.

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