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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT EMR Exam Questions

Page 3 of 25

41.

You are performing CPR on an infant and notice their chest is rising and falling appropriately with each rescue breath. Which term describes this movement of air into and out of the lungs?

  • Ventilation

  • Respiration

  •  Inspiration

  • Exhalation

Correct answer: Ventilation

Ventilation involves the movement of air into and out of the lungs. By providing rescue breaths, you are artificially ventilating the patient.

Respiration is the process of breathing, which occurs as inhalation and exhalation. Inhalation, also called inspiration, is when the lungs draw in air. Exhalation is when air is expired or pushed out of the lungs. A non-breathing patient who requires rescue breaths cannot inhale or exhale on their own.

42.

In a few circumstances involving obvious signs of death, CPR should not be started. One circumstance is if the patient has rigor mortis.

What is the medical definition of rigor mortis?

  • Temporary stiffening of muscles after death

  • Muscle breakdown after death

  • Decomposition of tissues

  • Long-term stiffening of muscles after death

Correct answer: Temporary stiffening of muscles after death

Rigor mortis is the temporary stiffening of muscles that occurs several hours after death. Rigor mortis, also called rigor, indicates the patient has been dead for a prolonged period and cannot be resuscitated. 

The decomposition of tissues occurs after a patient has been dead for more than one day.

43.

For which type of birth should the EMR not attempt to assist delivery but only provide rapid transport to a hospital? 

  • A breech birth 

  • A head-first birth

  • An overdue birth 

  • A premature birth

Correct answer: A breech birth 

In a breech birth, the newborn's buttocks come down the birth canal first, rather than the head. A breech birth is a true medical emergency, and the patient needs to be transported rapidly to the hospital to avoid maternal and fetal complications.

A normal birth presents with the head first, not the buttocks.

A premature birth would be before 37 weeks of gestation, and an overdue birth occurs after 42 weeks of gestation. Both of these may require special care for the baby, but if birth is imminent, the EMR can assist with the delivery on scene. 

44.

Which of the following is not an essential skill that is used when treating pediatric respiratory emergencies?

  • Listening to breath sounds

  • Opening the airway

  • Administering basic life support

  • Suctioning

Correct answer: Listening to breath sounds

Four essential skills are used when treating pediatric respiratory emergencies:

  • opening the airway
  • basic life support
  • suctioning
  • using airway adjuncts

Listening to breath sounds is a skill that EMRs are taught, but it is not an essential skill for treating pediatric emergencies. 

Opening the airway is done to alleviate a blocked airway and allow basic life support to be administered, such as rescue breathing or ventilation. Suctioning can be performed if needed, and airway adjuncts can be used to help maintain the patient's airway.

45.

You respond to a private residence for an unknown medical emergency. An 83-year-old female appears confused with deep, rapid breathing and a fruity odor to her breath.

Which medical emergency do these findings suggest?

  • Diabetic coma

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Stroke

  • Seizure

Correct answer: Diabetic coma

When a patient has deep, rapid breathing and a fruity odor to the breath, suspect a diabetic coma. These symptoms result from extra ketones in the body, causing acid to build up in the blood. This buildup triggers the respiratory system to breathe faster. Breathing faster expels more carbon dioxide, which is an acidic compound in the blood. 

Hypoglycemia, strokes, and seizures do not produce deep, rapid breathing and a fruity odor to the breath.

46.

During CPR, what sequence is followed?

  • CAB sequence

  • ABC sequence

  • CABD sequence

  • CBA sequence

Correct answer: CAB sequence

The sequence for CPR has changed over the years. Previously, rescuers would follow the ABCs to perform CPR. However, recent studies have shown the need to restore circulation before starting rescue breathing, so the sequence for performing CPR is the CAB sequence. CAB stands for circulation (chest compressions), airway, and breathing. 

Following this sequence, perform chest compressions to restore circulation before administering airway interventions and breathing.

47.

Which two general treatments do EMRs administer to patients with poisoning by ingestion?

  • Dilution using water and activated charcoal

  • Dilution using milk and activated charcoal

  • Dilution using water and syrup of ipecac

  • Dilution using milk and syrup of ipecac

Correct answer: Dilution using water and activated charcoal

EMRs are taught two general treatments to treat poisoning by ingestion: dilution using water and activated charcoal. Water can help dilute the poison that was ingested. If protocols allow, activated charcoal is given in some cases to bind to the poison and keep it from entering the digestive tract.

Milk may be recommended by Poison Control for specific poisons, but EMRs are taught to dilute the poison with water. Syrup of ipecac is a medication that encourages vomiting, but EMRs do not administer it.

48.

Which of the following is not a link in the American Heart Association's Chain of Survival?

  • Therapeutic hypothermia

  • Recovery

  • Basic and advanced EMS

  • Rapid defibrillation 

Correct answer: Therapeutic hypothermia

While therapeutic hypothermia may be beneficial in some cases of post-arrest care, it is not a link in the AHA chain of survival. The AHA chain of survival includes these links:

  • Recognition/activation of EMS
  • Immediate high-quality CPR
  • Rapid defibrillation
  • Basic and advanced EMS
  • ALS and post-arrest care
  • Recovery 

49.

Using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, how many assessments are made to determine whether a patient has experienced a stroke?

  • Three

  • One

  • Two

  • Four

Correct answer: Three

When using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale to determine whether a patient has experienced a stroke, there are three assessments. The first is assessing the patient's facial muscles by having the patient smile or show their teeth. The second is an assessment of arm drift by having the patient lift their arms straight in front of them, and the third is an assessment of their speech by asking them to repeat a simple phrase. 

If the patient cannot complete one or more of these assessments, suspect a stroke.

50.

What type of burn damages all layers of the skin?

  • Third-degree burns

  • First-degree burns

  • Second-degree burns

  • Sixth-degree burns

Correct answer: Third-degree burns

Full-thickness burns are called third-degree burns, which damage all layers of the skin. The patient will often be free of pain because the nerve endings have been destroyed. Without the protection the skin provides, patients with full-thickness burns lose large quantities of body fluids and are at high risk for developing shock, infections, and hypothermia.

First-degree burns are called superficial burns and are characterized by reddened and painful skin. The burn is confined to the outermost layers of the skin, and the patient will have mild to moderate pain. First-degree burns usually heal within a week, with or without treatment.

Second-degree burns are called partial-thickness burns, which are deeper than superficial burns but do not damage the deepest layers of the skin. Blistering is present in second-degree burns, and the patient will experience moderate to severe pain.

Sixth-degree burns are the most severe type, as almost all the muscle tissue in the area is destroyed, leaving nothing but charred bone. 

51.

A patient with emphysema is being transported from a hospital to a specialized facility an hour away. The onboard oxygen cylinder was empty at the start of your shift, and you were in the process of changing it when you received the call for this transfer. You are using a portable oxygen cylinder for the patient.

How long will your portable size D oxygen cylinder last?

  • 3 hours

  • 2 hours

  • 5 hours

  • 1 hour

Correct answer: 3 hours

Oxygen is compressed to 2,000 pounds per square inch (psi) and stored in portable cylinders. The portable oxygen cylinders used by most EMS systems are either size D or E. D-sized cylinders hold 340 L of oxygen, and E-sized cylinders hold 660 L of oxygen. Oxygen cylinders must be marked with a green color and be labeled as medical oxygen. Depending on the flow rate, D cylinders can last for 3 hours, and E cylinders can last for up to 5 hours.

Both types of portable cylinders hold enough oxygen to last longer than 1-2 hours, so multiple calls or long transfers can be done without having to replace the oxygen cylinders.

52.

Which of the following is not assessed using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

  • Pupillary response

  • Arm drift

  • Facial droop

  • Speech

Correct answer: Pupillary response

When using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, checking for a pupillary response is not one of the assessments. The three assessments check for arm drift, facial droop, and speech.

You will check the patient's pupils during the patient assessment.

53.

You have been dispatched to a private residence for a possible drowning. When you arrive, a young woman meets you in the driveway carrying a limp infant. The woman says she was babysitting the 10-month-old female and found her facedown in the dog's water bowl. The babysitter is unsure how long the patient was in the water. She says she patted the infant on the back, which made her vomit a small amount of water. You notice vomit in the patient's airway.

How long can you suction an infant at one time before providing ventilation?

  • 5 seconds at a time

  • 10 seconds at a time

  • 20 seconds at a time

  • 15 seconds at a time

Correct answer: 5 seconds at a time

Suctioning draws air and material from the airway, starving the patient of oxygen. After suctioning for 5 seconds, provide ventilation or supplemental oxygen, depending on the patient's condition. Once the patient has been oxygenated, suctioning can be repeated for 5 seconds at a time, followed by ventilation or oxygen, until the materials or secretions are removed. 

Children can be suctioned for no more than 10 seconds at a time before needing ventilation or oxygen. Infants can only be suctioned for 5 seconds at a time because their lungs are much smaller than a child's.

Suctioning for 20 seconds at a time is not recommended for any patient.

Adults can be suctioned for no more than 15 seconds at a time before providing ventilation or oxygen.

54.

How do some physicians recommend positioning a patient with a suspected air embolism from a diving accident?

  • Place the patient on their left side with their head slightly lowered

  • Place the patient on their right side with their head slightly lowered

  • Place the patient on their left side with their head slightly elevated

  • Place the patient on their right side with their head slightly elevated

Correct answer: Place the patient on their left side with their head slightly lowered

Some physicians recommend placing a patient who has a possible air embolism from a diving accident on their left side with their head slightly lowered. This position may help prevent further damage if there is an air bubble in the central nervous system, blocking air from traveling through the right side of the heart into the pulmonary arteries.

If you placed the patient on their right side or with their head elevated, further damage could result.

55.

Which of the following is not one of the four components of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)?

  • Treatment and Transportation Management

  • Fundamentals and Concepts of NIMS

  • Resource Management

  • Communications and Information Management

Correct answer: Treatment and Transportation Management

The four components of NIMS are Fundamentals and Concepts of NIMS, Resource Management, Command and Coordination, and Communications and Information Management. An EMR's role would fall under the Command and Coordination component and would not be directly related to the other components.

56.

There are two specialized injuries associated with diving. What are they?

  • Air embolism and decompression sickness

  • Air embolism and decompensation sickness

  • Stroke and decompression sickness

  • Cardiac arrest and decompression sickness

Correct answer: Air embolism and decompression sickness

The two specialized injuries associated with diving are air embolism and decompression sickness. Both injuries occur when air bubbles are released as a result of the changes in pressure while diving. It may be difficult to differentiate between these injuries, but the signs and symptoms depend on where the air bubble is in the body.

The term is decompression sickness, not decompensation sickness.

If an air bubble affects the brain or spinal cord, the patient can present with symptoms of a stroke, but it is due to the air bubble.

Cardiac arrest is not one of the specialized injuries associated with diving. 

57.

You are called to a private residence for an unresponsive 6-month-old male. Upon your arrival, the infant's father meets you at the door, stating that he found his son unresponsive after putting him to bed one hour ago. 

How is an infant's level of responsiveness determined?

  • By gently shaking or tapping the infant

  • By giving five back slaps

  • By giving five chest thrusts 

  • By gently spanking the infant's bottom

Correct answer: By gently shaking or tapping the infant

To determine an infant's level of responsiveness, gently shake or tap the infant. Usually, an unresponsive infant will be limp and will not respond to a shake or tap. If an infant is unresponsive, check their brachial pulse while simultaneously checking for signs of breathing.

Give five back slaps and five chest thrusts if the infant had a complete airway obstruction. Back slaps and chest thrusts are not used to determine an infant's level of responsiveness.

Healthcare professionals do not gently spank an infant's bottom to determine the level of responsiveness or for any other reason. Some people might think that healthcare professionals spank a newborn's bottom to encourage them to cry, but this is not practiced today. There are other methods to encourage a newborn to cry, such as drying them vigorously with a clean towel.

58.

You are the first to arrive at the scene of a crash involving several cars and trucks on a busy interstate highway. What action should you take immediately?

  • Give a scene-size-up radio report

  • Stop the flow of traffic 

  • Use binoculars to look for any hazard placards

  • Begin victim triage 

Correct answer: Give a scene-size-up radio report

The initial radio report is often the most important radio message of a major emergency because it sets the stage for everything that follows. The key points to communicate are:

  • Location of the incident
  • Type of incident
  • Any hazards
  • Approximate number of patients
  • Types of resources needed to respond

Once a report has been given, traffic control, triage, and hazard identification can begin.

59.

If you respond to a motor vehicle crash and can gain access, which of the following would be most helpful to ensure the vehicle does not move?

  • Place the transmission in park

  • Place the transmission in neutral

  • Chock the wheels 

  • Flatten all four tires 

Correct answer: Place the transmission in park

If you respond to a vehicle accident and can gain access, place the transmission in park to ensure the vehicle does not move. Also, set the emergency brake and turn off the ignition.

If you placed the vehicle's transmission in neutral, reverse, or drive, the vehicle could move and injure first responders, patients, or bystanders. Chocking the wheels may help prevent the vehicle from moving but will not be as effective as ensuring the transmission is in park. 

Avoid flattening the tires of a crashed vehicle. It is not an effective method to prevent movement.

60.

You are assessing a 23-year-old woman in labor. Which of the following is not an indication that birth is imminent?

  • Contractions are 7 minutes apart

  • The bag of waters has broken

  • The patient has experienced a bloody show

  • Crowing is present

Correct answer: Contractions are 7 minutes apart

Signs that delivery is imminent and you should prepare for a delivery in the field include:

  • The woman has experienced a bloody show
  • Crowning is present
  • Contractions are less than 5 minutes apart
  • The bag of waters has broken
  • The woman feels like she has to move her bowels 
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