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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT EMR Exam Questions

Page 4 of 25

61.

During a mass-casualty incident (MCI) with 15 patients, you use the START triage method. Your first patient has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute.

What is your next step?

  • Give them a Priority 1 tag (red/immediate)

  • Give them a Priority 2 tag (yellow/urgent)

  • Give them a Priority 3 tag (green/delayed)

  • Give them a Priority 4 tag (black/deceased)

Correct answer: Give them a Priority 1 tag (red/immediate)

During an MCI, patients with a respiratory rate above 30 breaths per minute are given a Priority 1 tag, which is red and marked immediate. Patients who are breathing this rapidly are showing one of the primary signs of shock and need immediate medical attention as soon as additional resources are available.

According to the START triage method, patients breathing greater than 30 breaths per minute are not stable and need immediate transport. If the patient's respiratory rate was below 30 breaths per minute and they did not have an altered level of consciousness or circulatory issues, they could be put in the Priority 2 category.

A patient who demonstrates more than 30 breaths per minute cannot be put in the delayed category, as they may not receive treatment for up to three hours.

The patient should not be considered deceased since they are still breathing.

62.

When giving a radio report to the communications center upon arrival at a mass-casualty incident, there are five key points you need to relay to dispatch. 

Which of the following is not one of these key points?

  • Ages of the patients

  • Location of the incident

  • Any hazards at the incident

  • Approximate number of patients

Correct answer: Ages of the patients

The five key points that dispatch needs to know are the location of the incident, the type of incident, any hazards, the approximate number of patients, and the type of assistance that is required. Patient ages do not need to be known at this time, and you will not have had enough time to assess each patient and ask their ages.

63.

To assess a patient for adequate breathing, the rescuer will look, listen, and feel.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of respiratory arrest that is observed with the look, listen, and feel method?

  • Lack of pulse

  • Lack of chest movement

  • Lack of breath sounds

  • Lack of air against the side of the face

Correct answer: Weak or absent pulse

The three characteristics of respiratory arrest when looking, listening, and feeling are lack of chest movement, lack of breath sounds, and lack of air against the side of your face. The rescuer will look for the patient's chest to rise and fall, listen for breath moving in and out of the patient's nose and mouth, and feel for the patient's breath against the side of the face.

A lack of pulse is not determined when looking, listening, and feeling for breathing. Feeling for a pulse is done after assessing the patient's breathing. A lack of pulse would indicate the patient is in cardiac arrest.

64.

You are called to an in-home daycare for a 6-month-old male with difficulty breathing. The daycare provider said she was feeding the patient a bottle of formula when he developed difficulty breathing. She adds that the patient has a cold, and his nose seems to be clogged.

What should you use to suction the nose of an infant?

  • A bulb syringe

  • A rigid-tip suction catheter

  • A tonsil-tip catheter

  • A flexible catheter

Correct answer: A bulb syringe

When suctioning the nose of an infant, a bulb syringe is used. Infants are nose breathers, so if their nose is clogged, they will quickly develop difficulty breathing. To use the bulb syringe, squeeze the bulb, gently insert it into the nostril, and then slowly release the bulb so it draws the fluid or mucus out of the nostril. Once the bulb has expanded, remove it from the nostril and squeeze the contents into a tissue or towel. Repeat on the other nostril.

A rigid-tip or tonsil-tip suction catheter is used to suction contents out of the mouth, not the nose.

A flexible catheter can be used to suction contents from a child's nose but not from an infant's.

65.

Why do patients with carbon monoxide poisoning have false readings from a pulse oximeter?

  • Their red blood cells are saturated with carbon monoxide.

  • Their white blood cells are saturated with carbon monoxide.

  • Their red blood cells are saturated with carbon dioxide,

  • Their white blood cells are saturated with oxygen.

Correct answer: Their red blood cells are saturated with carbon monoxide.

When a patient is experiencing carbon monoxide poisoning, their red blood cells are saturated with carbon monoxide. Since the pulse oximeter measures the oxygen saturation in the red blood cells, false readings will occur. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically affects patients who inhale smoke from a house or a vehicle fire. Other ways a patient can have carbon monoxide poisoning is by using a barbecue grill inside an improperly ventilated location or living in a home with a faulty water heater.

White blood cells do not carry oxygen. They fight infection.

In someone with carbon monoxide poisoning, the red blood cells are saturated with carbon monoxide, not carbon dioxide.

66.

You are performing CPR on an adult patient at a nursing home. Your partner is applying the AED to the patient to check the patient's rhythm.

What does the abbreviation AED represent?

  • Automated external defibrillator

  • Automatic external defibrillator

  • Automated electric defibrillator

  • Automatic electric defibrillator

Correct answer: Automated external defibrillator

AED stands for automated external defibrillator. The AED accurately identifies ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) and advises delivering a shock if a shockable rhythm is found. Every machine is different, and the rescuer must know the manufacturer's directions for use. Some machines require a button to be pressed when a shock is advised, while others will indicate the machine is delivering a shock and advise rescuers to stay clear of the patient.

The "A" part of AED stands for automated, not automatic. AEDs are not electric; they run on batteries.

67.

Which heart rhythm often occurs when a patient experiences cardiac arrest?

  • Ventricular fibrillation

  • Atrial fibrillation

  • Asystole

  • Flatline

Correct answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Approximately 70% of patients who experience cardiac arrest have ventricular fibrillation (V-fib). V-fib is a condition in which the heart muscle is quivering and not effectively pumping blood throughout the body. V-fib is a life-threatening heart rhythm that starts in the bottom chambers of the heart; it is often caused by a heart attack.

Atrial fibrillation (A-fib) is a heart rhythm in which the upper chambers of the heart (atria) beat out of coordination with the lower chambers (ventricles). A-fib does not typically cause a patient to go into cardiac arrest.

Asystole, also called flatline, refers to the absence of electrical and mechanical activity of the heart. There are no electrical beats on the heart monitor or AED but only a flatline. Patients in cardiac arrest will often be in asystole, but this rhythm is not the most common.

68.

A 6-year-old male has difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you find the patient limp on the couch in obvious respiratory distress.

What is a sign of possible respiratory failure?

  •  A breathing rate of fewer than 10 breaths per minute

  •  A breathing rate of fewer than 20 breaths per minute

  •  A breathing rate of fewer than 25 breaths per minute

  •  A breathing rate of fewer than 8 breaths per minute

Correct answer: A breathing rate of fewer than 10 breaths per minute

The normal respiratory rate for a child of preschool age (3-6 years old) is 20-25 breaths per minute. When the breathing rate drops to fewer than 10 breaths per minute, the child has respiratory failure. Other signs of respiratory failure are limp muscle tone, unresponsiveness, a decreased or an absent heart rate, and weak or absent distal pulses.

A breathing rate of fewer than 20-25 breaths per minute is within normal limits.

If a child is breathing at a rate below 8 breaths per minute, they are in severe respiratory failure.

69.

Two complications of CPR include broken ribs and gastric distention. Which of the following is the definition of gastric distention?

  • When air is blown too fast and too forcefully into the stomach during CPR

  • Bloating of the abdomen after a heavy meal

  • Regurgitation of food or fluid in the stomach during CPR

  • Abdominal obstruction that causes bloating

Correct answer: When air is blown too fast and too forcefully into the stomach during CPR

When air is blown too fast and too forcefully into the stomach during CPR, it causes gastric distention. Another cause of gastric distention is a partially obstructed airway, which allows air during ventilation to go into the stomach rather than into the lungs. Gastric distention causes an obvious increase in the abdomen's size. When the abdomen is distended, the lungs cannot fully inflate.

Gastric distention is the medical term for bloating of the abdomen.

When a patient has gastric distention, they can also regurgitate (passively vomit) any food or fluid in their stomach. If this happens, there is a risk of the patient aspirating the fluid or food into their lungs.

Gastric obstruction would occur if the patient had an obstruction in their abdominal cavity. Blowing air too fast or too forcefully during CPR does not cause an obstruction.

70.

What is the most commonly abused drug in the United States?

  • Alcohol

  • Fentanyl

  • Heroin

  • Marijuana

Correct answer: Alcohol

Alcohol is the most commonly abused drug in the United States. Deaths as a result of alcohol abuse are 2.5 times as numerous as deaths from motor vehicle accidents. As an EMR, you will see alcohol intoxication in people of all ages, including children, teenagers, and older adults. According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, nearly 88,000 people die from alcohol-related deaths each year.

Fentanyl, heroin, and marijuana are all commonly abused drugs, but they are less commonly abused than alcohol. Alcohol is more readily available and widely accepted, making it easier to consume in many situations.

71.

What are the four colors of START triage tags, from Priority 1 to Priority 4?

  • Red, yellow, green, black (or gray)

  • Red, green, black (or gray), yellow

  • Yellow, red, green, black (or gray)

  •  Black (or gray), red, yellow, green

Correct answer: Red, yellow, green, black (or gray)

Starting with Priority 1 and continuing to Priority 4, the colors of the START triage tags are red, yellow, green, and black (or gray).

Red is Priority 1 and used for patients who cannot be stabilized and need immediate transport.

Yellow is Priority 2 and used for patients who fall in the urgent category but can tolerate delayed treatment for up to an hour.

Green is Priority 3 and used for patients who are walking wounded. Their care can be delayed up to three hours.

Black (or gray) is Priority 4 and used for patients who are dead or have no pulses or respirations on assessment.

72.

What is the purpose of obtaining a patient's past medical history?

  • To gather information systematically about the patient's past medical conditions, illnesses, and injuries

  • To gather information systematically about the patient's past medical conditions, chief complaint, and insurance information

  • To gather information systematically about the patient's chief complaint, past medical conditions, and allergies

  • To gather information systematically about the patient's past medical conditions, insurance, and injuries

Correct answer: To gather information systematically about the patient's past medical conditions, illnesses, and injuries

The purpose of obtaining a patient's past medical history is to gather information systematically about the patient's past medical conditions, illnesses, and injuries. This information will help determine the events leading up to their present condition. Gathering information about their past medical conditions will also give insight into their current signs and symptoms. For example, if a patient is complaining of difficulty breathing with audible wheezes and they have a history of asthma, they are most likely having an asthma attack.

The purpose of obtaining a patient's past medical history is not to learn about their chief complaint, which would have been done in your primary assessment. Gathering insurance information is not a concern when obtaining a past medical history from the patient. If you work for an ambulance agency, insurance information can be gathered during the secondary assessment, en route to the hospital, or upon arrival at the hospital.

73.

If an automated external defibrillator (AED) is used on infants or children in cardiac arrest, when should the AED pads be applied?

  • After the first five cycles of CPR have been completed

  • After the first two cycles of CPR have been completed

  • Before beginning CPR

  • Before ventilating the patient and after compressions are complete

Correct answer: After the first five cycles of CPR have been completed

When using an AED on infants or children in cardiac arrest, apply the AED pads after the first five cycles of CPR have been completed. Cardiac arrest is different in infants and children and is usually the result of respiratory failure, not cardiac failure. 

CPR works in cycles of five, not cycles of two. 

Oxygenation and ventilation are more important in the first two minutes of CPR than applying the AED.

A full five cycles of CPR should be completed before applying an AED.

74.

What is the recommended procedure if a pregnant patient's bag of waters does not rupture and surrounds the newborn after delivery?

  • Carefully break the bag and push it away from the newborn's nose and mouth

  • Do not break the bag and transport both patients quickly to the hospital

  • Forcefully break the bag and push it away from the newborn's nose and mouth

  • Do not break the bag and administer high-flow oxygen to the mother

Correct answer: Carefully break the bag and push it away from the newborn's nose and mouth

 If a pregnant patient's bag of waters does not rupture and the newborn is surrounded by the bag of waters after delivery, carefully break the bag and push it away from the newborn's nose and mouth. You may possibly need to suction the infant's mouth and nose after the bag is ruptured.

If the bag is not broken, the newborn cannot breathe and will suffocate. The bag needs to be gently broken. Avoid forcefully breaking the bag, as you could injure the newborn.

Administering high-flow oxygen to the mother will not help the infant. The bag needs to be broken so the infant can have an open airway.

75.

What happens to the alveoli as a person ages?

  • The alveoli lose their elasticity.

  • The alveoli shrink.

  • The alveoli rupture.

  • The alveoli enlarge.

Correct answer: The alveoli lose their elasticity.

As a person ages, the alveoli lose their elasticity. When this occurs, it makes it harder to inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. Older patients typically have a reduced lung capacity, so they do not exchange as much air with each breath. Also, the muscles that assist with respiration become weaker with age, making it harder for older patients to cough. When this occurs, older patients are more susceptible to respiratory disease than younger patients.

The alveoli do not shrink as a person ages, but they lose their shape and elasticity. They are still the same size, just flatter.

The alveoli also do not rupture or enlarge as a person ages.

76.

When a patient has experienced a venomous snakebite, what is the patient given at the hospital to treat the bite?

  • Antivenin

  • Antivenom

  • Atropine

  • Antivenene

Correct answer: Antivenin

The only effective treatment for venomous snakebites is antivenin, which is administered in a hospital setting. If a patient has been bitten by a venomous snake, they need to be transported to a hospital or an appropriate medical facility that carries antivenin. Notify the hospital immediately so they can have the antivenin ready when the patient arrives. 

There are four types of venomous snakes in the United States: rattlesnake, cottonmouth (water mocassin), copperhead, and coral snake. The antivenin will only work if a patient has been bit by one of these four snakes, so it is helpful to identify the type of snake involved if possible.

The medication is not called antivenom, even though this term is commonly used. The correct name is antivenin.

Atropine is used for cardiac problems and organophosphate and nerve-agent poisonings, not for snake bites.

Antivenene is not the correct spelling for antivenin. EMRs must use proper spelling on all reports, as they are official documents.

77.

You are EMR-certified and are eating dinner with your family when your son has a spontaneous, severe nosebleed. 

What is the recommended treatment to control the bleeding?

  • Have the patient tilt their head slightly forward and pinch both nostrils together for at least 5 minutes

  • Have the patient tilt their head back and pinch both nostrils together for at least 5 minutes

  • Have the patient put their head between their knees and pinch both nostrils together for at least 5 minutes

  • Have the patient tilt their head slightly forward and pinch the bridge of the nose for at least 5 minutes

Correct answer: Have the patient tilt their head slightly forward and pinch both nostrils together for at least 5 minutes

The recommended treatment to control nosebleeds is to have the patient tilt their head slightly forward and pinch both nostrils together for at least 5 minutes. Keeping the head tilted forward keeps the blood from running down the back of the patient's throat and into their stomach, which could cause nausea and vomiting.

The patient does not need to put their head between their knees, as this will make breathing more difficult.

Pinching the bridge of the nose is not sufficient to control bleeding. Instead, pinch both nostrils together.

78.

You are transporting a patient who has a prolapsed umbilical cord. What is the recommended treatment for a prolapsed umbilical cord?

  • Keep the umbilical cord covered with moist gauze

  • Keep the umbilical cord covered with dry gauze

  • Push the umbilical cord into the vagina

  • Gently pull on the umbilical cord

Correct answer: Keep the umbilical cord covered with moist gauze

When a patient has a prolapsed umbilical cord, keep the cord covered with moist gauze. To minimize pressure, transport the patient on their back with the hips and legs propped higher than the rest of their body.

Do not cover the cord with dry gauze or push the cord back into the vagina. Never pull on the umbilical cord, even gently. The cord is the lifeline between the mother and fetus and fragile.

79.

For the purposes of rescue breathing, what is the standard age range for children?

  • 1 year to the beginning of puberty

  • 1 year to 8 years

  • 1 year to the beginning of adulthood

  • 1 year to 10 years

Correct answer: 1 year to the beginning of puberty

For the purposes of performing rescue breathing, a child is any individual between the ages of 1 year and the start of puberty (12 to 14 years old). It is important to determine whether you are providing rescue breathing for a child or an adult, as children need a faster rate of ventilation than an adult. Provide ventilation with a breath every 2-3 seconds for a child and a breath every 6 seconds for an adult.

Patients are still considered children at the ages of 8 and 10. If a patient is beginning adulthood, they will be treated as an adult.

80.

How is a myocardial infarction different from angina pectoris?

  • Myocardial infarction results when one or more of the coronary arteries are completely blocked, but angina pectoris is a partial blockage of the coronary arteries.

  • Myocardial infarction results when both of the coronary arteries are partially blocked, but angina pectoris is a complete blockage of the coronary arteries.

  • Myocardial infarction results when one or more of the femoral arteries are completely blocked, but angina pectoris is a partial blockage of the coronary arteries.

  • Myocardial infarction results when one or more of the coronary arteries are completely blocked, but angina pectoris is a partial blockage of the femoral arteries.

Correct answer: Myocardial infarction results when one or more of the coronary arteries are completely blocked, but angina pectoris is a partial blockage of the coronary arteries.

Myocardial infarction (MI) is most commonly known as a heart attack or MI. The two primary causes of coronary artery blockage are severe atherosclerosis and a blood clot from somewhere else in the circulatory system that lodges in the coronary artery.

An MI is not a result of both of the coronary arteries being partially blocked. Instead, one or more of the arteries are completely blocked.

An MI results when the coronary arteries are blocked, not the femoral arteries.

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