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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

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1.

Alex, a 10-year-old client, performed machine chest presses with 50 pounds for sets of 10 last week. If this load was relatively easy for this client, what should be the load for her next training session?

  • 55 pounds

  • 60 pounds

  • 50 pounds

Correct answer: 55 pounds 

55 pounds is correct because pre-adolescent clients should only increase loads 5 to 10% for resistance training exercises. This conservative amount will ensure the safety of the client and allow continued strength improvements over time. It is also important that this population resistance trains on nonconsecutive days for a maximum of three days per week.

60 pounds is incorrect because this would be a 20% increase in load. 50 pounds is incorrect because, if safe for the client, an increase in load will lead to continued strength improvements.

2.

All the following are considered proper procedures when using an automated external defibrillator except:

  • Ensure your hands are pressing the pads down throughout the process

  • Wipe the bare chest dry before attaching the pads

  • Follow the voice and/or visual prompts

Correct answer: Ensure your hands are pressing the pads down throughout the process

Ensure your hands are pressing the pads down throughout the process is correct because nothing or no one should be touching the unconscious individual when the AED is analyzing the heart rhythm or applying a shock. The emergency responder should say, "Everyone stand clear" before using the AED. CPR and AED use can be cycled until the individual exhibits clear signs of life, the emergency response team arrives, or the scene becomes unsafe.

Wipe the bare chest dry before attaching the pads and follow the voice and/or visual prompts are incorrect because these are correct methods for using an AED.

3.

Which of the following are consequences of not consuming enough dietary fat?

I. Decreased testosterone production

II. Decreased bone density

III. Impaired fat-soluble vitamin absorption

IV. Decreased energy production ability

  • I and III only

  • II and IV only

  • I and II only

Correct answer: I and III only

I and III only is correct because a decrease in testosterone production can occur in diets with less than 15% fat consumption, and impaired fat-soluble vitamin absorption can occur with very low-fat diets. These low-fat diets have been prescribed to patients with severe heart disease but are not recommended for healthy, active individuals. Health is improved with sufficient intake of omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids.

II and IV only is incorrect because neither of these are consequences of low-fat diets. I and II only is incorrect because decreased bone density is associated with diets low in calcium and vitamin D, not fat.

4.

A client is programmed to perform heavy sets of squats during their workout. Performing lighter sets of squats prior to the heavy sets is an example of what?

  • Specific warm-up

  • Pyramid training

  • Progressive overload

Correct answer: Specific warm-up

It's important to perform an appropriate warm-up prior to activity. A proper warm-up will prepare the body for the activity to come. A specific warm-up uses movements that are similar to those that will be performed in the workout. Performing sets of light squats prior to performing heavy squats is an example of a specific warm-up.

Pyramid training generally refers to exercises in which the reps are increased steadily on each set until they reach a peak, then they are decreased to return to baseline. Pyramid training can also be used with weight modifications instead of repetition modification, or in addition to repetition modification. 

Progressive overload is a principle that refers to adding intensity and resistance over time to impose a demand on muscle tissue.

5.

What should a personal trainer do during the initial interview before discussing goal setting with a client?

  • Determine client-trainer compatibility

  • Establish a client-trainer agreement

  • Ask the client to complete a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

Correct answer: Determine client-trainer compatibility

It's important to determine whether a potential client and a personal trainer are compatible before moving forward with setting specific goals for a training program. Logistics, such as time and location of training services, should be considered and discussed in addition to determining factors such as client motivation and training readiness. This can help to ensure compliance with a training program.

The client-trainer agreement may also be included in the initial interview but is generally created after determining compatibility and setting specific goals. The PAR-Q and fitness assessment should be completed as part of the pre-participation health appraisal screening, which is separate from and generally follows, the initial interview.

6.

Approximately how much rest is appropriate for a client to take between their three to five repetition warm-up set and their first one-repetition near-maximal set during one-repetition maximum strength testing?

  • 2 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 1 minute

Correct answer: 2 minutes

2 minutes is correct because this should be enough rest for the energy systems to recover from a submaximal set. As the load increases closer to the one-repetition maximum, the rest periods will increase in length. The key is to use rest periods that allow full or nearly complete recovery without allowing the client to lose readiness.

4 minutes is incorrect because this is the recommended rest period between the maximal load sets. 1 minute is incorrect because this is the recommended rest period between the warm-up sets.

7.

A personal trainer is assessing an individual's ability to land with proper body position for plyometric training. Which of the following would indicate a movement fault?

  • The feet are flat on the ground with the weight firmly in the heels.

  • The shoulders are directly in line with the knees.

  • The knees are in line with the feet.

Correct answer: The feet are flat on the ground with the weight firmly in the heels.

Proper landing mechanics are important for decreasing injury risk when clients perform plyometric training. Therefore, personal trainers should assess their client's ability to land correctly. A proper landing position includes:

  • The torso leaning slightly forward so that the shoulders are in line with the knees.
  • The knees bent and in line with the feet, and not drifting inward or outward.
  • The feet should be flat, but the body's weight should be placed more into the balls of the feet and not in the heels.
  • A soft landing.
  • The hips should be level and not dropping to either side.

8.

Which of the following is not a symptom of overtraining from resistance exercise?

  • Increased appetite

  • Decreased strength gains

  • Sleep disturbances

Correct answer: Increased appetite

Increased appetite is correct because overtraining from resistance exercise typically results in the opposite, a decreased appetite. Overtraining from resistance exercise usually occurs because of too much volume and too much intensity. There is a multitude of symptoms that result from this overtraining that affect the physical, psychological, and emotional well-being of the client.

Decreased strength gains and sleep disturbances are incorrect because these are symptoms of overtraining from resistance exercise.

9.

During the lying tricep extension, which of the following is true regarding the muscles used to complete the motion?

  • The triceps are predominantly used during the concentric phase and eccentric phase

  • The triceps are predominantly used during the concentric phase, while the biceps are most active during the eccentric phase

  • The triceps are predominantly used during the eccentric phase, while the biceps are most active during the concentric phase

  • The triceps serve only as a synergist during this exercise

Correct answer: The triceps are predominantly used during the concentric phase and eccentric phase

During this exercise, the triceps work concentrically during the upward movement, and eccentrically during the downward movement.

The biceps are antagonists during this movement, meaning they oppose the movement of the triceps, which work as agonists (not synergists).

10.

Which of the following is true regarding assisted sprinting?

  • It is often used to help increase stride frequency

  • It is often used to help improve sprinting form

  • It is often used to help improve stride length

  • It is the best way to improve speed strength and speed endurance

Correct answer: It is often used to help increase stride frequency

Assisted sprinting involves the use of supramaximal speeds to force clients to take more steps than they normally would while sprinting.

This can lead to improved stride frequency, but not necessarily improved stride length or sprinting form. Resisted sprinting seems to be better for improving speed strength, but not necessarily speed endurance.

11.

Which of the following is not required to determine maximal oxygen consumption during the 12-minute walk or run test?

  • Heart rate monitor

  • Flat course with measured distances

  • Visible distance markers

Correct answer: Heart rate monitor

Heart rate monitor is correct because this measurement is not a part of the equation (VO2max = (0.0268 x Distance) - 11.3) used to determine VO2 max. The only variable that requires recording is the distance covered during the test duration. This test is considered a maximal test to determine cardiovascular fitness and, therefore, should only be applied to the appropriate population.

Flat course with measured distances and visible distance markers are incorrect because these are required to perform this test.

12.

Which of the following is true regarding the muscles used during swimming?

  • Regardless of the stroke, swimming is generally a full-body exercise.

  • Swimming involves very little lower body activity.

  • Swimming involves primarily lower-body activity.

  • Swimming is usually considered to be a low-intensity exercise.

Correct answer: Regardless of the stroke, swimming is generally a full-body exercise.

Swimming requires coordination of the upper and lower body to achieve the best results.

This form of cardiovascular exercise is not inherently high or low intensity. The intensity is determined by other training variables.

13.

Which of the following is the most common supplement that a client is likely to be taking?

  • Vitamin and mineral supplement

  • Protein supplement

  • Creatine supplement

Correct answer: Vitamin and mineral supplement

Vitamin and mineral supplement is correct because the purpose of this supplement is general health, which can be attributed as a goal across many populations. In addition, these are perceived to be without risk. However, excess intake of vitamins and minerals is not beneficial and, depending on the circumstances, potentially harmful.

Protein supplement is incorrect because these are typically taken only by those who don't get enough dietary protein or who are looking to increase muscle mass. Creatine supplement is incorrect because these are only used by those looking to improve strength, speed, or muscle mass.

14.

Which of the following does not increase in skeletal muscle as a result of chronic aerobic training?

  • Type II muscle fiber cross-sectional area

  • Capillary density

  • Glycogen stores

Correct answer: Type II muscle fiber cross-sectional area

Type II muscle fiber cross-sectional area is correct because this remains unchanged in response to aerobic endurance training. The cross-sectional area of the type I fibers may increase as a result, but only slightly. The largest change in response to aerobic training is a shift in fiber type distribution to a larger percentage of more oxidative fibers.

Capillary density and glycogen stores are incorrect because these do increase in response to aerobic training.

15.

A back squat can be classified as which of the following types of exercises?

I. Multi-joint

II. Structural

III. Core

IV. Primarily sagittal plane

V. Power

  • I, II, III, and IV only

  • I, II, and IV only

  • III and V only

Correct answer: I, II, III, and IV only

A back squat uses two or more primary joints, engages large muscle groups, and loads the axial skeleton. It could be a primary exercise in a training program because it can help clients achieve their specific training goals. The back squat can be used to improve muscular endurance, hypertrophy, or muscular strength. The major components of the squat occur in the sagittal plane.

The back squat is not considered a power exercise, unless the movement is modified to be explosive in nature. 

16.

Which of the following is true of a client who doesn't smoke, but lives in the same house as someone who smokes cigarettes inside the home?

  • This client is at risk for CVD

  • This client is not at risk for CVD

  • This client may be at risk for CVD, depending on how long they've lived in the house with the smoker

  • There is no correlation between environmental tobacco smoke and CVD

Correct answer: This client is at risk for CVD

Environmental tobacco smoke exposure, smoking currently, and quitting smoking within 6 months of working with a trainer all put clients at risk for CVD. Because this person lives with a smoker and is exposed to smoke, they are at risk for CVD.

17.

Which type of grip should a spotter use when a client is performing a barbell shoulder press?

  • Alternated

  • Neutral

  • Pronated

Correct answer: Alternated

Alternated is correct because this allows optimal control of the barbell when it is above the client's head. This grip should also be closed and between the client's hands. If the client is using dumbbells instead of a barbell, the spotter should focus on the client's wrists.

Neutral is incorrect because it is impossible to grip a barbell with a neutral grip. Pronated is incorrect because this may cause the barbell to travel toward the spotter if assistance is needed.

18.

Which stretching methods are recommended for use during personal training sessions with all populations to safely and effectively increase range of motion (ROM)?

  • Dynamic stretching and static stretching

  • Static stretching, dynamic stretching, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, and ballistic stretching

  • Static stretching, dynamic stretching, and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching

Correct answer: Dynamic stretching and static stretching

Increases in Range Of Motion (ROM) and flexibility can be achieved through various types of stretching. The following two methods are widely recommended for safe use with most individuals:

  • Static stretching: This method involves moving slowly into a stretch position and then holding it for 30 seconds. This is the most widely used type of stretching and has a low risk of injury.
  • Dynamic stretching: This method involves moving the joints through a controlled ROM using functional movements. Examples of dynamic stretches include controlled arm circles and lunge walks. The controlled movements can safely and effectively prepare the body for training and can also increase ROM.

These two methods are not generally recommended for all populations:

  • Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) stretching can actually be an effective method of increasing ROM, but it relies on significant training and can also be time-consuming. PNF stretching relies on a partner to provide a passive stretch. Without sufficient training, there is an increased risk of injury due to the potential of overstretching the muscle during the passive stretch. Because of this, and because static and dynamic stretching are effective methods of increasing ROM, PNF stretching is not recommended during personal training sessions for all populations.
  • Ballistic stretching, similar to dynamic stretching, also involves moving the joints through a ROM. However, instead of performing controlled movement patterns, it relies on momentum. This uncontrolled movement increases the injury risk to the soft tissues due to activation of the stretch reflex. Therefore, it is not an acceptable method of safely increasing flexibility in any population.

19.

When measuring the chest skin fold, which direction should the fold be to take an accurate measurement?

  • Diagonal

  • Horizontal

  • Vertical

Correct answer: Diagonal

Diagonal is correct because this will be the easiest, and therefore most reliable, way to pinch the skin fold in this area.  For females, the diagonal fold is taken one-third between the anterior axillary line (imaginary line extending from the front of the armpit downward) and the nipple. For males, it is halfway between the anterior axillary line and the nipple.

Horizontal is incorrect because no skin folds are taken with a horizontal fold. Vertical is incorrect because this position would not allow for an accurate measurement.

20.

You are designing a program for a client who wishes to improve his vertical jump height. When taking his baseline measurements, which of the following tests is most appropriate for this goal and for the training data you need to obtain?

  • Stationary standing at a wall, reaching up as high as he can, then jumping and touching as high on the wall as possible

  • Starting with a 12-inch block, stepping off of it, and landing with soft knees

  • Jumping up onto a 12-inch plyo box

  • Taking an approach and touching the wall as high as he can

Correct answer: Stationary standing at a wall, reaching up as high as he can, then jumping and touching as high on the wall as possible

The vertical jump should be tested from a stationary starting point, and the jump should be straight up, not forward like in a depth squat or box jump, nor with an approach.

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