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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

Page 2 of 50

21.

When designing a fitness facility, how far from the mirrors should the dumbbell racks be placed at a minimum?

  • 6 inches

  • 3 feet

  • 3 inches

Correct answer: 6 inches 

6 inches is correct because this distance will decrease the chance of breakage while not intruding into too much floor space. These racks may need to be bolted down if they constantly shift toward the mirror. This shifting can occur when the dumbbells are repacked by users.

3 feet is much too large; this is the recommended distance between the end of a barbell and another object. 3 inches is incorrect because this distance is not large enough to prevent potential breakage when reracking the dumbbells.

22.

A client who is new to exercise is about to get on the treadmill for the first time in his life. Which of the following would be the best advice that the trainer could give the client in order to keep him safe while using this piece of equipment?

  • "Hold the handrails"

  • "Look down at your feet while walking"

  • "Set the slope to a 2% decline to start"

Correct answer: "Hold the handrails"

Holding the handrails will help with balance and keep the client safe. This is especially important for an older client or those undergoing cardiac rehabilitation. Once the client has become accustomed to the belt moving underneath them, they may let go of the handrails.

Looking down at the feet can lead to inefficient gait and balance issues while walking. Walking on a decline or incline may be difficult for someone who is new to the treadmill. 

23.

Carbohydrate requirements of an individual primarily depend on which of the following physical activity factors?

  • Mode of exercise

  • Intensity of exercise

  • Speed of exercise

Correct answer: Mode of exercise

Mode of exercise is correct because those training in aerobic endurance events, especially those lasting over an hour per day, require almost twice the amount of carbohydrate needed by strength, power, or speed athletes. The main reason for this is the need of aerobic endurance athletes to replenish stored glycogen levels. These athletes should consume 7 to 10 grams per kilogram of body weight, while strength and power athletes can get by on 5 to 6 g/kg.

Intensity of exercise is incorrect because duration of continuous activity is a more important factor. Speed of exercise is incorrect because speed, strength, and power athletes require less carbohydrate than aerobic endurance athletes.

24.

During the forward lunge exercise with a barbell, where should the personal trainer spot the client?

  • The client's waist

  • Under the client's arms

  • The barbell

Correct answer: The client's waist

The client's waist is correct because keeping the client balanced is the main goal of the spotter. The load chosen for this exercise should never be so much that a client needs assistance in lifting the weight. The personal trainer could also spot the waist or torso to help a client stay balanced if needed.

Under the client's arms is incorrect because this would likely lead the personal trainer to interfere with the movement. The barbell is incorrect because this is the spotting focus for barbell exercises over the face and head only.

25.

A client's blood pressure has been measured at 140mmHg/95 mmHg. How should the personal trainer proceed?

  • Measure blood pressure again after two minutes

  • Refer to a physician for possible hypertension

  • Diagnose the client with hypertension

Correct answer: Measure blood pressure again after two minutes

Measure blood pressure again after two minutes is correct because referral should only occur if two consecutive measurements indicate hypertension. If the two measurements differ by more than 5 mmHg for either the systolic or diastolic blood pressure, a third measurement should be taken. The average score of these two or three measurements is used to determine the final blood pressure.

Refer to a physician for possible hypertension is incorrect because hypertension should be shown in at least two consecutive measurements to eliminate the error. Diagnose the client with hypertension is incorrect because this action is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer.

26.

Which of the following is considered a negative risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

  • HDL > 60 mg/dl

  • Blood pressure > 130/80 mmHg

  • Current cigarette smoking

  • Female age > 55 years

Correct answer: HDL > 60 mg/dl

Negative risk factors are those that reduce the likelihood of developing a disease. Having high HDL levels is a negative risk factor, while having high blood pressure, smoking cigarettes, and being older than 55 as a female are all positive risk factors for CVD.

27.

Which of the following is true regarding assumption of risk documents for children/minors?

  • Neither children nor their parents can consent to assume risk during exercise

  • Children can assume risk during exercise

  • Parents can assume risk for their children during exercise

  • Both parents and children share the assumption of risk during exercise

Correct answer: Neither children nor their parents can consent to assume risk during exercise

Training children presents a tricky legal conundrum for trainers. Children cannot assume risk during training, nor can their parents. Therefore, trainers need to be extra careful when working with children to ensure that they are not hurt during exercise sessions.

28.

In which of the following exercises is the five-point body contact position used?

  • Lying triceps extension

  • Side-lying crunches

  • Smith machine squats

Correct answer: Lying triceps extension

Lying triceps extension is an exercise in which the client is lying supine on a bench. The five-point body contact position is also used for seated exercises. This position involves the back of the head, upper back and rear shoulders, lower back, and buttocks in contact with the bench or floor.

Smith machine squats and side-lying crunches do not require five points of contact.

29.

Which of the following resistance exercises does not use the five-point body contact position?

  • Resistance band triceps extension

  • Lying triceps extension

  • Seated barbell shoulder press

Correct answer: Resistance band triceps extension

Resistance band triceps extension is correct because this exercise is performed while seated on the floor or mat. The five-point body contact position is used for exercises that involve sitting on a seat or lying either supine or prone on a bench. This is used to stabilize the body during a resistance training exercise and to reduce the risk of injury.

Lying triceps extension and seated barbell shoulder press are incorrect because these all use the five-point body contact position.

30.

Clasping the hands behind the back and pulling the shoulder into extension in the hands-behind-back stretch targets which muscles?

  • Anterior deltoids and pectoralis major

  • Triceps brachii and latissimus dorsi (lats)

  • Latissimus dorsi and teres major

Correct answer: Anterior deltoids and pectoralis major

The hands-behind-back stretch is a static flexibility exercise that targets the front of the shoulder (anterior deltoid) and the chest (pectoralis major).

To perform the stretch, stand tall while keeping a slight bend in the knees. Reach both arms behind the back and clasp your hands. Once your hands are clasped, straighten your elbows and slowly lift your hands up and away from your body until you feel the stretch. Be sure to keep the arms straight throughout the movement and to maintain an upright posture; don't lean forward in an attempt to raise the arms higher.

The triceps brachii and latissimus dorsi are both targeted in the behind-neck stretch, and the teres major is one of the muscles targeted in the arm swing dynamic stretch as that arm reaches across the body.

31.

A client is looking to gain five pounds of muscle in the next four weeks. If his current caloric intake is 2,750 calories per day, what must his new minimum caloric intake be to achieve this goal?

  • 3,197 calories

  • 3,125 calories

  • 3,375 calories

Correct answer: 3,197 calories

3,197 calories is correct because this will allow for 12,500 extra calories to be consumed over the four weeks. 2,500 extra calories must be consumed for each one-pound increase in muscle or 12,500 calories for five pounds. These 12,500 extra calories will result in an extra 3,125 calories per week or 446.4 extra calories per day.

3,125 calories is incorrect because this is the number of extra calories required per week. 3,375 calories is incorrect because this would be the number if 3,500 extra calories were needed to gain one pound of muscle.

32.

Which of the following pieces of equipment cannot be used to perform the standing triceps pushdown exercise?

  • Dumbbells

  • Cable machines

  • Resistance bands

Correct answer: Dumbbells

Standing tricep pushdowns can only be performed with bands or cable/pulley machines. These pieces of equipment allow the client to work against a different line of force than gravity.

Dumbbells require the client to consider gravity, and thus, the standing triceps pushdown could not be performed with dumbbells. 

33.

The product of which of the following two cardiovascular variables combine to determine the rate of blood transportation throughout the body?

I. Heart rate

II. Plasma volume

III. Arteriovenous oxygen difference

IV. Stroke volume

  • I and IV only

  • II and III only

  • II and IV only

Correct answer: I and IV only

I and IV only is correct because the rate of blood transported throughout the body depends on the amount of blood that can be pumped by the heart per beat (stroke volume) and the number of heartbeats per unit of time (heart rate). This rate of blood transportation is known as the cardiac output. This increases dramatically in response to exercise because both heart rate and stroke volume rise with increased exercise intensity.

II and III only is incorrect because neither variable contributes to cardiac output. II and IV only is incorrect because plasma volume does determine the rate of blood transportation.

34.

All the following correctly describe the design phase except:

  • The project's architect is selected.

  • The design must account for local health, safety, and legal codes.

  • The final result should be a detailed blueprint of the new facility.

Correct answer: The project's architect is selected.

The project's architect is selected is correct because this occurs not in the design phase but in the pre-design phase. The selection of the architect is based on a bid process in which the committee evaluates costs and experience. An architect with excellent credentials and a strong work record should be selected.

The design must account for local health, safety, and legal codes and the final result should be a detailed blueprint of the new facility are incorrect because these are a part of the design phase.

35.

Jamal is a 12-year-old soccer player who wishes to improve their sport performance. Which of the following training volumes is the most appropriate for this client?

  • Three sets of 10 repetitions

  • Two sets of 20 repetitions

  • Three sets of 4 repetitions

Correct answer: Three sets of 10 repetitions 

Three sets of 10 repetitions is correct because this falls within the recommendation of one to three sets of 6 to 15 repetitions for children participating in resistance training. When introducing children to resistance training, it is always better to underestimate their abilities than to overestimate them and risk an injury. A light to moderate weight that can be lifted for 10 to 15 repetitions is a good starting point.

Two sets of 20 repetitions is incorrect because these are more repetitions than is recommended for children. Three sets of 4 repetitions is incorrect because this volume corresponds with a load, which may be unsafe for children.

36.

An asymptomatic, apparently healthy client is presented with a modified RPE scale that indicates levels of exertion from one to ten. The client is walking on a treadmill, is able to talk comfortably, does not demonstrate any dyspnea or signs/symptoms of heart issues, and has been walking for roughly five minutes. She rates her RPE as an eight out of ten. Which of the following is likely true in this scenario?

  • The client misunderstands the RPE scale

  • The client is about to experience a cardiac event

  • The client has accurately conveyed her perceived intensity level

  • The client is in excellent shape compared to her peers

Correct answer: The client misunderstands the RPE scale

The modified RPE scale presents clients with the choice to indicate their intensity on a 1-10 scale, with ten being the highest intensity, and one being the lowest intensity. When clients are properly trained on the use of the RPE tool, their intensity measured by other methods will usually correspond closely with their RPE score. This client may not understand how to use the RPE scale if she is breathing and talking comfortably during exercise and still rates her RPE so highly.

There is no indication that she is in better or worse shape than her peers based on the information provided. There is no indication that she is about to experience a cardiac event based on the information provided.

37.

A senior client (over 60 years of age) is having difficulty being able to provide more than one-word answers when talking during an aerobic endurance exercise session due to exertion. Which of the following actions should the personal trainer take in response to this situation?

  • Lower the intensity of the exercise

  • Maintain the current protocol for five more minutes

  • Stop the exercise session

Correct answer: Lower the intensity of the exercise

Lower the intensity of the exercise is correct because if a senior client fails the talk test during aerobic endurance training, they are most likely exercising harder than necessary. The talk test simply determines whether a client can talk in short to medium length sentences while performing aerobic exercise. This method and rating of perceived exertion may be used instead of heart rate monitoring with older adults since maximal heart rates can vary greatly in this population.

Maintain the current protocol for five more minutes is incorrect because the exercise intensity is likely too high for this client. Stop the exercise session is incorrect because unless other symptoms are present, the client is likely not at risk.

38.

To perform the bent-over row, which of the following motions occurs at the elbow during the concentric phase?

  • Flexion

  • Extension

  • Medial rotation

Correct answer: Flexion

The bent-over row requires action primarily at the shoulder and elbow. The shoulder is extended and the elbow is flexed during the concentric phase, and the opposite motions occur during the eccentric phase.  

39.

Which of the following describes a method of gathering data about a client's nutritional habits that involves the client documenting everything consumed over a three-day period?

  • Diet record

  • Diet history

  • Dietary recall

Correct answer: Diet record

It's important to begin with gathering information about a client's current nutritional habits, tendencies, and preferences to assist a client with improving their diet. It is common practice to ask a client to document everything they eat or drink over a three-day period. This is known as a diet record and may commonly be referred to as a food log.

A dietary recall involves asking a client to detail what they've eaten in the last 24 hours. A diet history is a questionnaire that gathers information about things such as a client's preferences, eating habits and schedule, and medical and weight history.

All three can provide valuable information in starting to assist a client with their nutrition. This information can then be analyzed (diet analysis) to help evaluate their current state of nutrition.

40.

Which of the following is true regarding resting energy expenditure and resistance training for the older adult?

  • The average older adult increases their resting energy expenditure by 7% in response to resistance training

  • Resting energy expenditure does not usually increase in response to resistance training in the older adult

  • Resting energy expenditure often increases by up to 25% in older adults in response to resistance training

  • Older adults tend to burn about 300 more calories at rest after starting a resistance training program

Correct answer: The average older adult increases their resting energy expenditure by 7% in response to resistance training

Exercise in general, and resistance training specifically, tends to increase resting energy expenditure in the older adult. This 7% increase equates to about 100 calories burned at rest.

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