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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

Increases in collagen production from resistance training can result in what physiological adaptation?

  • Increase in connective tissue strength

  • Increase in muscular size

  • Increase in bone density

Correct answer: Increase in connective tissue strength

Connective tissue, including ligaments and tendons, consists mainly of collagen fibers with little blood supply. Like muscle tissue, these tissues adapt to the resistance training stimulus and can increase in strength with consistent training. The loading that occurs during resistance training can trigger an increase in collagen production, strengthening the integrity of the joints. Collagen production that increases connective tissue strength is considered a structural adaptation.

Hypertrophic muscular changes are a result of increased protein synthesis. Body composition changes due to resistance training are related to increases in muscle mass and not collagen production. Increases in motor unit recruitment that are seen with resistance training are considered a neurological adaptation.

182.

Which of the following would indicate a need for an individual to talk to their physician to obtain medical clearance before beginning an exercise program?

  • Answering yes to one question on the PAR-Q

  • High-density lipoprotein (HDL) > 60 mg/dl

  • Body mass index (BMI) < 30 kg/m2

Correct answer: Answering yes to one question on the PAR-Q

The PAR-Q is a questionnaire designed to identify signs and symptoms and risk factors of Coronary Artery Disease (CAD), orthopedic issues, and previous diagnoses. Answering yes to any of the questions requires a physician's clearance for the individual to begin an exercise program.

An individual may need to obtain medical clearance if they are asymptomatic and have at least two risk factors for CAD or if they exhibit signs and symptoms of CAD.

The following are considered some of the risk factors for CAD:

  • an HDL less than 40 mg/dL
  • a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 
  • a sedentary lifestyle (less than 30 min. of moderate intensity exercise 3x/week)
  • smoking
  • men over the age of 45 and women over the age of 55

Therefore, a BMI of less than 30 kg/m2 is not considered a risk factor. An HDL greater than 60 mg/dL is a healthy test result and is what's known as a negative risk factor. This can actually help offset other risk factors.

183.

Which of the following is not true regarding the measurement of abdominal fat in obese clients?

  • Skinfold measurements are most appropriate for this population

  • Measurements such as BMI or waist circumference should be used instead of skinfolds

  • The client can wear thin clothing during circumference measurements

  • A waist circumference greater than 40 inches in men puts them at higher risk for CVD

Correct answer: Skinfold measurements are most appropriate for this population

Because of the limits of skinfold calipers, and the embarrassment and discomfort that may be caused by skinfold testing on obese clients, waist circumference measurements are usually a better choice.

Very obese clients may be embarrassed to remove clothing, so allowing them to wear a light shirt during waist measurements can help them overcome this issue. Waist circumferences greater than 40 inches in men and 35 inches in women put individuals at higher risk for CVD.

184.

What is the target heart rate of a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute who is assigned to training at an exercise intensity of 85%?

  • 168 beats per minute

  • 157 beats per minute

  • 98 beats per minute

Correct answer: 168 beats per minute

168 beats per minute is correct because the variables for using the Karvonen method are available in the question. According to this method, target heart rate = (heart rate reserve x exercise intensity) + resting heart rate = ((220-35-70) x 0.85) + 70 = 168 beats per minute. The Karvonen method is considered to provide more accurate target heart rates than simply using the percentage of age-predicted maximum heart rate.

157 beats per minute is incorrect because this was determined using the percentage of age-predicted maximum heart rate method. 98 beats per minute is incorrect because this answer did not include adding the resting heart rate after multiplying the heart rate reserve and exercise intensity.

185.

Which of the following is true regarding programming for plyometric programs?

  • There is a dearth of research on the optimal variables for plyometric programs

  • Plyometric programs should be completed 3 times per week, with 48 hours of rest in between sessions

  • Clients should rest for at least 10 minutes between sets of plyometric exercise

  • Plyometric workouts should last at least 30 minutes for each session

Correct answer: There is a dearth of research on the optimal variables for plyometric programs

There have been a few compelling studies that have outlined the optimal variables for plyometric training. While there are some guidelines available, trainers should rely on their personal experience and the response of the client to the plyometric exercise.

Resting for 10 minutes between sets, completing 3 sessions per week, and working out for 30 minutes may be appropriate variables, but this is not the case for every client.

186.

Which of the following describes the judicial system that concerns itself with cases of negligence?

I. Civil system

II. Criminal system

III. Assess guilt and innocence

IV. Assess duty and liability

  • I and IV only

  • II and III only

  • I and III only

Correct answer: I and IV only

I and IV only is correct because negligence is evaluated in the civil system by judges and juries who are asked to examine and assess duty and liability. If duty and liability are determined, judges or juries are then asked to set the amount of compensation to be paid to redress such wrongs. Criminal cases with personal trainers stem from providing unlawful medical or dietetic services, theft, and assault or sexual misconduct with clients.

II and III only is incorrect because negligence is not a criminal matter. I and III only is incorrect because the civil system assesses duty and liability.

187.

When checking on an ill or injured client who appears to be unconscious, what is the very first step one should take when arriving on the scene?

  • Assess the scene for safety

  • Check the client for responsiveness

  • Check for breathing

Correct answer: Assess the scene for safety

Assess the scene for safety is correct because before addressing the unconscious client, one must first ensure that it is safe to do so. It is unknown why the client is unconscious, and it would increase the risk of the event to simply jump in with an emergency response. The client may have become unconscious due to electrocution or a chemical spill that would affect the emergency responder as well.

Check the client for responsiveness is incorrect because this should occur only after assessing the scene for safety. Check for breathing is incorrect because this should only occur after calling 9-1-1 and opening the airway.

188.

You are designing a program for a pregnant client. When determining the intensity, which of the following is the least appropriate method?

  • Monitoring heart rate

  • Monitoring RPE

  • The talk test

  • Having the client work at an intensity where she can talk comfortably, but not sing comfortably

Correct answer: Monitoring heart rate

Heart rate changes significantly during pregnancy. Therefore, it is not appropriate to use heart rate as a measure of intensity during pregnancy.

The talk test, which consists of having the client work at an intensity where she can talk comfortably, but not sing comfortably, is a more appropriate method, as is RPE rating.

189.

Which plane of motion does the walking side lunge dynamic stretch take place in?

  • Frontal plane

  • Sagittal plane

  • Vertical plane

Correct answer: Frontal plane

Frontal plane is correct because this is a lateral, or side to side, movement. The frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. Joint movements include abduction, adduction, lateral flexion, inversion, and eversion.

Sagittal plane is incorrect because its movements are forward and backward or up and down. Vertical plane is incorrect because this movement plane does not exist.

190.

Which of the following individuals' programs is set up so that they can achieve the minimum exercise requirements for good health as outlined by the Physical Activity Guidelines Advisory Committee?

  • A client who walks at a moderate intensity for 30 minutes, 5 days a week

  • A client who bikes at a low intensity for 60 minutes, 5 days a week

  • A client who performs hill sprints for a cumulative total of 60 minutes a week

  • A client who swims at mixed intensity for 15 minutes, 3 days a week

Correct answer: A client who walks at a moderate intensity for 30 minutes, 5 days a week

The generally accepted guidelines for good health with respect to exercise indicate that all healthy individuals should complete 150-300 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week, 75 or more minutes of vigorous exercise each week, or a combination of the two.

60 minutes a week, and 15 minutes, 3 days a week do not provide enough of a cumulative volume of exercise. Working at low intensity is not enough of a stimulus to meet the healthy guidelines.

191.

Which of the following best describes resistance exercise overtraining?

I. Sympathetic dominant

II. Parasympathetic dominant

III. Predominantly results from excessive volume overload

IV. Predominantly results from excessive intensity overload

  • I and IV only

  • II and III only

  • I and III only

Correct answer: I and IV only

I and IV only is correct because research has shown that even a low volume of high-intensity training that is repeated without sufficient recovery can lead to overtraining. Resistance exercise overtraining is also characterized by the inability to recover from sympathetic stress. The best method of preventing resistance exercise overtraining is to monitor a client's tolerance and recovery from training stress.

II and III only is incorrect because this describes aerobic endurance overtraining. I and III only is incorrect because sympathetic dominance results from excessive high-intensity training.

192.

For a beginner client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate resistance training goal?

  • Muscular endurance

  • Hypertrophy

  • Muscular strength

Correct answer: Muscular endurance 

Muscular endurance is correct because it has the lowest intensity, which serves to decrease resting blood pressure and will prevent excessive hypertension during resistance exercise. One to three sets of 16 to 20 repetitions at 50 to 60% of 1RM with longer than typical rest intervals of 2 to 3 minutes is recommended as a starting protocol for clients with hypertension. With experience (four to six months) and progress shown, a hypertensive client can proceed into the higher repetition ranges of hypertrophy training.

Hypertrophy and muscular strength are incorrect because these types of resistance training are too intense for a client with hypertension.

193.

Which of the following exercises would likely be unsafe for a 230-pound sedentary individual?

  • Depth jumps from 10 inches

  • Step ups

  • Pull ups

  • Kettlebell curl to overhead press

Correct answer: Depth jumps from 10 inches

Depth jumps and other plyometric exercises should be used with caution in those weighing over 220 pounds. While these individuals do not necessarily need to abstain from plyometric exercise, it could be unsafe for them, especially when compared to the other exercise options listed.

194.

Negligence claims require proof of all the following except:

  • Assumption of risk

  • Duty

  • Breach of duty

Correct answer: Assumption of risk

Negligence claims need to provide proof of four elements:

  1. Duty: This indicates the legal responsibility of an individual to take measures to keep another individual safe from harm. Although there are no specified legal duties for personal trainers, they do have a responsibility to adhere to the professional standards and guidelines of the industry. This might include screening and assessing their clients to determine the need for further medical screening as well as to determine and provide appropriate levels of exercise for the individual.
  2. Breach of duty: This indicates that the responsible individual did not fulfill their legal or professional duty according to industry standards.
  3. Proximate cause: This suggests that there is a connection between the individual's actions or failure to act and some form of harm.
  4. Damage or harm: There must be evidence of harm, which in the case of a personal training client, might be an injury that allegedly took place during a personal training session.

Assumption of risk is when an individual agrees, prior to participation, to waive their rights to damages in the event of an injury. Asking clients to sign an assumption of risk form, also known as a waiver, is a form of risk management and can be useful in defending against a negligence claim. However, these agreements are not considered valid in all locations.

195.

What type of exercise has been shown to help reduce anxiety for the average individual?

  • Low- to moderate-intensity aerobic exercise

  • Moderate-intensity, low-volume resistance training

  • High-intensity, low-volume resistance training

Correct answer: Low- to moderate-intensity aerobic exercise

Aerobic endurance exercise of varying intensities has been shown to help reduce anxiety. Resistance training that is low-intensity and high-volume has also been shown to have a similar effect. 

Resistance training that is low-volume, regardless of intensity, generally does not provide sufficient stimulus to trigger a change in anxiety, while higher-intensity training for the average individual generally does not help alleviate stress.

The reduction of anxiety might be due, in part, to the calming nature of performing rhythmic activity, such as that involved in aerobic and repetitive movements.

196.

Which of the following is true of the muscle spindle with regard to stretching exercise?

  • Rapid, high-energy stretches may activate the muscle spindle reflex, leading to less ROM.

  • Slow, sustained stretching activates the muscle spindle reflex, allowing for greater ROM.

  • Slow, sustained stretching inhibits the muscle spindle reflex, leading to less ROM.

  • Rapid, high-energy stretches inhibit the muscle spindle reflex, leading to greater ROM.

Correct answer: Rapid, high-energy stretches may activate the muscle spindle reflex, leading to less ROM.

The muscle spindle reflex is an inhibitory reflex within muscle tissue that prevents muscles from tearing. When a muscle or tendon is quickly stretched, the muscle spindle reflex may activate, inhibiting said muscle, and leading to decreased ROM.

On the other hand, slow, sustained stretches do not activate the muscle spindle reflex. This often leads to greater ROM.

197.

For which of the following exercises would a weight belt be least appropriate?

  • Bench press

  • Standing barbell shoulder press

  • Front squats

  • Deadlifts

Correct answer: Bench press

Indirect loading of the spine, even with heavy weights, does not require a weight vest, such as bench presses, lad pull-downs, and bicep curls.

Weight belts are recommended for exercises that involve direct, heavy loading of the spine such as deadlifts, standing shoulder presses, front squats, back squats, and other similar movements.

198.

Which of the following clients should be advised to avoid an excessively high-protein (greater than 4g/kg) diet?

I. Those with iron deficiencies

II. Those with impaired renal function

III. Those with calcium deficiencies

IV. Those who are sedentary

V. Those with restricted fluid intake

  • II, III, and V only

  • I, III, and V only

  • III, IV, and V only

Correct answer: II, III, and V only

II, III, and V only is correct because these situations can be exacerbated by high protein intake. For the most part, concerns about the potential negative effects of high protein intakes are unfounded, especially in healthy individuals. Proteins consumed in excess of required amounts are used for energy or are stored.

I, III, and V only is incorrect because iron deficiency is not worsened with high protein intake. III, IV, and V only is incorrect because overall caloric intake, not protein-specific intake, is the concern with sedentary individuals.

199.

You design a long-term plan for your client that includes a method of increasing the weight for each lift as the client gets stronger over time. Which of the following terms best describes this principle of exercise prescription?

  • Progressive overload

  • Specificity

  • SMART goals

  • Overtraining

Correct answer: Progressive overload

Progressive overload refers to the appropriate increase of exercise intensity and/or volume of a client's program over time. This may take the form of increasing the weight, increasing sets, reps, or another training variable.

Specificity refers to how closely a client's program relates to their goals. SMART goals are those that are Specific, Measurable, Action-Based, Realistic, and Time-bound. Overtraining is training with too much intensity/volume, too quickly, leading to potentially long-term consequences and injuries.

200.

A client jogs in place for a few minutes before going on a ten-mile run. Which of the following best describes this type of warm-up?

  • Specific warm-up

  • RAMP warm-up

  • General warm-up

  • Passive warm-up

Correct answer: Specific warm-up

A specific warm-up is one in which the client or athlete performs a movement similar to that used during the workout, exercise session, or competition that follows. Jogging in place is a specific warm-up when the athlete plans to go out on a run afterward.

A RAMP warm-up consists of Raising, Activating, Mobilizing, and Potentiating the parts of the body to be used during the workout. A general warm-up consists of large, full-body movements that are not specific to the upcoming workout. A passive warm-up consists of the use of passive heating methods such as a hot pack to encourage blood flow to a certain body area.

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