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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA CSPS Exam Questions

Page 4 of 25

61.

Older clients who are frail tend to have a high risk of which of the following conditions that requires the trainer to make a referral?

  • Insufficient nutritional intake 

  • Over activity

  • Hyperflexibility

Correct answer: Insufficient nutritional intake 

Older clients in general, but especially frail clients, tend to have a high risk of insufficient nutritional intake such as not eating enough protein or total calories. This can directly impact recovery in a negative way, increasing the risk for strain and injury.

If the trainer recognizes this, it is his or her responsibility to refer the client to a registered dietician or nutritionist so that dietary recall or blood tests (or both) can be undertaken to determine nutritional status. The client will also be able to receive nutritional counseling.

62.

What is another exercise-based profession that is similar to personal training but is outside the scope of practice for a trainer?

  • Physical therapist

  • Nutritionist

  • Sports conditioning coach

Correct answer: Physical therapist

Since physical therapists use therapeutic exercise as a way to address an injury or disease, there is some crossover with the duties of a personal trainer. However, the scope of practice of a physical therapist includes other interventions such as the following:

  • Joint and soft tissue mobilization
  • Neuromuscular education
  • Gait training
  • Modalities

While there might appear to be a level of crossover between the two professions, a personal trainer cannot legally claim they are a physical therapist. This is because physical therapists are licensed health care professionals who are trained to diagnose and treat medical conditions, primarily injuries and diseases that limit function or cause pain. 

To protect yourself from legal issues, you must not present your services as physical therapy or as treating a disease or injury. With that said, you can refer a client to a licensed specialist for an appropriate diagnosis and treatment if he or she has pain that limits motion, swelling of a joint or muscle, or limited range of motion.

63.

What is the primary goal of medication that is taken for atrial fibrillation?

  • Prevent clot formation

  • Lower blood pressure

  • Increase glucose uptake

Correct answer: Prevent clot formation

The primary goal of medication that is taken for atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation since clots can form due to inactive atrial tissue. The two most common medications for this condition include Coumadin and Plavix.

Another important goal of medication for atrial fibrillation is to control the ventricular response to increased rate of atrial stimulation.

64.

Which of the following best reflects the recommended acute variables of an aerobic exercise program for a client with hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

  • 5-6 days per week / Large muscles groups / 40-85% heart rate reserve / 30-60 min

  • 1-3 days per week / Large muscles groups / 40-50% heart rate reserve / 10-30 min

  • 3-4 days per week / Isolation-focused movements / 40-85% heart rate reserve / 30-45 min

Correct answer: 5-6 days per week / Large muscles groups / 40-85% heart rate reserve / 30-60 min

For clients with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism, the recommended exercise guidelines essentially follow the guidelines for apparently healthy persons. The caveat is that the client must have hormone replacement results in a euthyroid state.

When assigning an aerobic exercise program to a client with hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, be sure to focus on the following acute variables:

  • 5-6 days per week
  • Large muscles groups
  • 40-85% heart rate reserve
  • 30-60 min

The personal trainer must know the signs and symptoms of thyroid disease and adjust the exercise program accordingly. A medical referral might also be necessary.

65.

Which of the following is taken to increase the effectiveness of other drugs used in the HIV regimen?

  • Pharmokinetic enhancers

  • Antiretroviral therapy

  • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Correct answer: Pharmokinetic enhancers

Pharmokinetic enhancers are prescribed alongside HIV treatment to increase the effectiveness of those drugs used in the HIV regimen. Pharmokinetic enhancers reduce the breakdown of those drugs, hence improving the length of time they stay in the individual's system.

66.

What does the "T" in the TNM system refer to in regard to cancer treatment?

  • Size of the tumor

  • If the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes

  • If the cancer has reached other major organs

Correct answer: Size of the tumor

Several classification systems exist to track a cancer's process. The TNM (Tumor, Node, Metastasis) system gives three key pieces of information and is currently the most commonly used method.

The "T" reflects the size of the tumor and is ranked based on severity from T0 or no tumor through T4 or a tumor invasion of a vital organ such as the heart or lungs.

67.

Which of the following may increase the risk of HIV transmission from a client in a gym setting?

  • Open wounds on client

  • Client not taking medication

  • Client sweats during exercise

Correct answer: Open wounds on client

Overall, strength and conditioning activities are deemed low risk for the transmission of HIV. This is due to the minimal exposure to bodily fluids. However, when a client has cuts, scrapes, bloody noses, or open wounds, this exposure to bodily fluids can increase the risk of HIV transmission.

Whenever blood or body fluids, excluding sweat, are present, the standard precautions of your fitness facility and the Center for Disease Control should be followed to minimize risk of disease transmission.

68.

Due to the increased risk of bleeding from anticoagulant medications, a client who has suffered a stroke should avoid all of the following except:

  • Resistance training

  • Vigorous physical activity

  • Contact sports

Correct answer: Resistance training

Due to the increased risk of bleeding from anticoagulant medications, a client who has suffered a stroke should avoid vigorous physical activity and contact sports. 

Low-to-moderate intensity resistance training and aerobic exercise are encouraged as a part of a beneficial exercise program.

69.

Which of the following is described as an abnormal separation of the joint surfaces?

  • Joint dislocation

  • Joint sprain

  • Joint break

Correct answer: Joint dislocation

Unlike a joint sprain, a joint dislocation is an abnormal separation of the joint surfaces. Common acute symptoms of a dislocation include the following:

  • Pain at the joint especially during movement
  • Limited range of motion
  • Numbness or tingling
  • Swelling
  • Bruising

70.

For those with mild lumbar hyperlordosis, which three muscle groups should be the primary focus of flexibility training?

  • Hip flexors, hamstrings, and erector spinae

  • Hip flexors, quadriceps, and abdominals

  • Hamstrings, calves, and abdominals

Correct answer: Hip flexors, hamstrings, and erector spinae

For those with mild lumbar hyperlordosis, there are three muscle groups that should be the focus of flexibility training: the hip flexors, hamstrings, and erector spinae.

71.

Which of the following is the most common cause of spinal cord injuries?

  • Motor vehicle accidents

  • Falls

  • Acts of violence

Correct answer: Motor vehicle accidents

Motor vehicle accidents are the most common cause of spinal cord injuries followed by falls and acts of violence. It is important to understand how a spinal cord injury occurred during a client assessment because other areas of the body could be affected. This will directly impact the type of program you create and may require medical clearance beforehand.

72.

What is lumbar hyperlordosis?

  • Inward curving of the lower back

  • Outward curving of the lower back

  • Inward tilt of the pelvis

Correct answer: Inward curving of the lower back

Lumbar hyperlordosis is an inward curving of the lower back that creates a C-shaped curve. Hyperlordosis is associated with conditions such as cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, obesity, osteoarthritis, and in some cases pregnancy. Many people who have shortened or tight hip flexor muscles or weak abdominal, lower back, hamstring or gluteus maximus musculature also tend to develop hyperlordosis. Lumbar hyperlordosis can lead to low back pain and it presents an increased risk of lumbar injury. 

73.

During the consultation and assessment, the personal trainer should help the client to understand how to set S.M.A.R.T. goals. What does this acronym stand for?

  • Specific, Measurable, Actionable, Realistic, and Timed

  • Standard, Muscle-bound, Assessment, Realistic, and Time

  • Self-Monitoring, Analysis, Realistic, and Timed

Correct answer: Specific, Measurable, Actionable, Realistic, and Timed

During your consultation and assessment, the personal trainer should help the client to understand how to set short-, medium-, and long-term goals. The ideal way to do this is by focusing on setting S.M.A.R.T. goals. This acronym stands for:

Specific: Goals should be detailed, measurable, and observable.

Measurable: Record goals and monitor progress.

Action oriented (or achievable): All elements of action need to be identified. (E.g., what do you need to buy to attain your goal?)

Realistic (or relevant): Goals should be focused on small and steady progress, not unsustainable leaps and bounds.

Time-bound (or timed): Goals should have clearly identified time constraints.

Using a combination of these approaches and guidelines, the personal trainer should work with each client to define goals for an exercise program.

74.

A client shows signs and symptoms for an increased exercise-related risk of a serious cardiovascular event. Which of the following forms is the most appropriate to use?

  • Medical clearance

  •  PAR-Q+

  • Informed consent

Correct answer: Medical clearance

When a client shows signs and symptoms for an increased exercise-related risk of a serious cardiovascular event, it is the personal trainer's responsibility to use a medical clearance form and refer the client to a health care professional.

The medical clearance form gives a health care professional an opportunity to identify specific medical concerns and, when appropriate, approval for the individual to participate in exercise testing and programming.

75.

All of the following are symptoms of chronic fatigue syndrome except:

  • High level of triglycerides

  • Cognitive impairment

  • Painful lymph nodes

Correct answer: High level of triglycerides

Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is characterized by persistent, medically unexplained fatigue lasting for at least six months. What's more, CFS is unrelieved by bed rest. Common symptoms include the following:

  • Debilitating fatigue
  • Sore throat
  • Nausea
  • Dizziness
  • Painful lymph nodes
  • Headaches
  • Low-grade fever
  • Nonrestorative sleep
  • Sleep disturbances
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Depression

High level of triglycerides is not a common symptom related to chronic fatigue syndrome.

76.

What is the general recommendation for exercise for pregnant women?

  • 150 minutes per week of moderate intensity aerobic activity 

  • 150 minutes per week of high intensity aerobic activity 

  • 150 minutes per week of low intensity aerobic activity 

Correct answer: 150 minutes per week of moderate intensity aerobic activity 

According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the appropriate amount of physical activity or exercise for a pregnant woman is 150 minutes per week of moderate intensity aerobic activity such as brisk walking.

Healthy women who are already accustomed to vigorous intensity aerobic activity such as running can continue doing so during and after pregnancy, but only if approved by a doctor.

77.

According to the World Health Organization, what is the bone mineral density (BMD) that classifies someone as having osteoporosis?

  • BMD greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the “young normal” adult score

  • BMD greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations above the “young normal” adult score

  • BMD equal to 1.5 standard deviations below the “young normal” adult score

Correct answer: BMD greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the “young normal” adult score

When a client has a bone mineral density (BMD) at the hip or spine greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations (SD) below the “young normal” adult score, he or she has clinical osteoporosis. This is measured by dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA).

Osteoporosis is a reduction in bone strength that can increase your client's risk of fracture.

78.

All of the following are tests of agility except:

  • Sprint test

  • T-test 

  • Hexagon test

Correct answer: Sprint test

Agility tests are an important part of a fitness assessment. After nonfatiguing tests, it is appropriate to conduct agility tests. Exercises such as the T-test and hexagon test are great examples of agility tests.

A sprint does not measure agility; it measures an individual's quick burst power and linear speed capabilities.

79.

Which of the following best reflects the recommended acute variables of aerobic training for a frail client?

  • 3-5 days per week / Light to moderate intensity / 5 to 60 minutes

  • 1-2 days per week / Light intensity / 5 to 10 minutes

  • 4-7 days per week / Moderate intensity / 45 to 60 minutes

Correct answer: 3-5 days per week / Light to moderate intensity / 5 to 60 minutes

When designing an aerobic exercise program for a frail client, the focus should be to increase functional capacity and independence. Therefore, it is recommended to assign three to five days of aerobic exercises and activities that recruit large muscle mass. Examples include walking, cycling, swimming, and chair exercises.

Depending on the client, the session can last between 5 and 60 minutes and range from light to moderate intensity. As the client improves, the trainer can increase duration and intensity.

80.

Which of the following is the most common instigator of an asthma attack?

  • Exercise

  • Genetics

  • Environment

Correct answer: Exercise

The most common instigator of an asthma attack is exercise. In fact, approximately 90% of individuals who have asthma experience a hyperresponsive reaction to exercise. A thorough and responsible assessment is critical to providing an appropriate exercise program and, if needed, medical referral.

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