PTCB PTCE Exam Questions

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41.

In the hospital, if a medication order is marked STAT, how quickly should it be filled?

  • Within 15 minutes

  • Within 30 minutes

  • Within 45 minutes

  • Within 60 minutes

Correct answer: Within 15 minutes

A prescription marked "STAT" should be filled within 15 minutes. A STAT order takes precedence over a prescription marked ASAP.

A STAT order should be filled within 15 minutes, not within 30 minutes, 45 minutes, or 60 minutes.

42.

Which of the following regulates over-the-counter drugs?

  • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

  • Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

  • Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

Correct answer: Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or USFDA) is a federal agency of the United States Department of Health and Human Services. The FDA is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety, tobacco products, dietary supplements, prescription and over-the-counter pharmaceutical drugs (medications), vaccines, biopharmaceuticals, blood transfusions, medical devices, electromagnetic radiation emitting devices (ERED), cosmetics, animal foods and feed, and veterinary products.

The DEA classifies drugs as controlled substances. OSHA regulates employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens. The FTC regulates the advertisement of over-the-counter drugs.

43.

The intent of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 is to do which of the following?

  • Protect children from serious injury

  • Alert consumers of product ingredients

  • Provide safety information regarding products

  • Identify poison control numbers for each product

Correct answer: Protect children from serious injury

The intent of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970 is to protect children from serious injury. The PPPA requires medications and other household substances to be distributed in child-resistant packaging to help prevent children from serious injury caused by the ingestion of poisonous substances.

The intent of the PPPA was not to alert consumers of product ingredients, to provide safety information regarding products, or to identify poison control numbers for each product.

44.

Which one of the following patient safety and quality assurance techniques emphasizes differences in drug names that look similar?

  • Tall man lettering

  • Look-alike/sound-alike

  • High alert

  • Leading zeros

Correct answer: Tall man lettering

Drug names written with tall man letters (i.e., buPROPion or TEGretol) are names that have mixed case letters, which are used to help draw attention, or emphasize dissimilarities between drugs with similar names. The FDA, ISMP, and TJC promote this safe-practice action, but the law does not require it.

Tall man lettering is not used to assist with the spelling and pronunciation of drug names or to indicate the drug's classification.

Look-alike/sound-alike medications deal more with drugs that do look alike but also sound similar as well. High alert medications are drugs with a high likelihood of causing serious harm when used improperly. Leading zeros is another error prevention measure to help ensure accurate translation of numbers less than one. When a leading zero is omitted, there is a risk of causing the patient to recieve a dose that is higher than the intended dose, which can be fatal. 

45.

If a laminar airflow hood (LAFH) is in constant use, how often should it be cleaned?

  • Every 30 minutes

  • Every hour

  • Every 12 hours

  • Every 24 hours

Correct answer: Every 30 minutes

If a LAFH is in constant use, it should be cleaned every 30 minutes. The LAFH should be cleaned with 70% isopropyl alcohol.

The LAFH should be cleaned every 30 minutes when in constant use, not every hour, every 12 hours, or every 24 hours.

46.

If you have 0.5 mL of a 1:50 solution, how many micrograms do you have?

  • 10,000 mcg

  • 0.01 mcg

  • 10 mcg

  • 100 mcg

Correct answer: 10,000 mcg

To solve, start by converting the 1:50 ratio to a fraction (1/50) and convert it to a decimal (0.02).

Next, use the weight/volume equation to solve:

  1. FV x % (decimal) = Amount of AI (g)
  2. 0.5 mL x 0.02 = 0.01 g

Now, convert grams to micrograms:

(0.01 g)(1,000 mg/1 g)(1,000 mcg/1 mg) = 10,000 mcg

47.

Combining naproxen with dabigatran can increase the risk of which of the following?

  • Bleeding

  • Thrush

  • Hypotension

  • Drowsiness

Correct answer: Bleeding

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is an anticoagulant used to prevent clots. Combining aspirin with dabigatran can cause dangerous bleeding issues. Anticoagulants, such as warfarin, heparin, and enoxaparin, are used to prevent or treat blood clots.

Inhaled corticosteroids can cause oral thrush, a fungal infection, if the mouth is not rinsed after each use. Alpha1 receptor antagonists can cause hypotension if they are used with additional blood pressure lowering agents. Opioids and benzodiazepines are known to increase drowsiness when taken with drugs that suppress the nervous system.

48.

If a drug’s concentration is 10 mg/mL, how many grams of the drug are in 3/4 L of the solution?

  • 7.5 g

  • 5 g

  • 10 g

  • 12.5 g

Correct answer: 7.5 g

  1. Convert 10 mg to grams: 1,000 mg / 1 g = 10 mg / X g; X = 0.01 g
  2. Determine the number of mL: 1 L / 1,000 mL = 0.75 L / X mL; X = 750 mL
  3. Solve for the number of grams: 0.01 g / 1 mL = X g / 750 mL; X = 7.5 g

49.

Which of the following specialized compounded sterile preparations does not have to be sterile?

  • Otic medications

  • Epidurals

  • Ophthalmic medications

  • Nasal preparations

Correct answer: Otic medications

Otic medications must be compounded using aseptic techniques. However, they do not have to be sterile since they are applied externally. Epidurals, ophthalmic medications, and nasal preparations must be sterile.

Epidurals are injected intrathecally to control pain during childbirth.

Ophthalmic medications are administered to the eye.

Nasal preparations are indicated for rhinitis.

50.

Which of the following laws was established to mandate that all new drug applications be filed with the FDA?

  • Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

  • Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

  • Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

  • Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951

Correct answer: Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 mandated that all new drug applications must be filed with the FDA.

The Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951 was an amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 and required all products to have sufficient directions for use. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 mandated that all U.S. drugs be pure, safe, and effective. The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was established to outlaw the interstate transport or transaction of contaminated and misbranded drugs.

51.

An 81-year-old patient visits the pharmacy to pick up their medication. They currently take cyclobenzaprine 5 mg, acetaminophen 325 mg, amoxicillin 500 mg, and sucralfate 1 g.

Which of these medications is part of the Beers Criteria for Potentially Inappropriate Medication Use in Older Adults? 

  • Cyclobenzaprine

  • Acetaminophen

  • Amoxicillin

  • Sucralfate 

Correct answer: Cyclobenzaprine 

Cyclobenzaprine is in the class of skeletal muscle relaxants, which is part of the Beers Criteria for Potentially Inappropriate Medication Use in Older Adults, and therefore may cause an issue for the patient by putting them at fall risk. 

Acetaminophen, amoxicillin, and sucralfate are not part of the criteria. 

52.

Which of the following roles of medication therapy management (MTM) can pharmacy technicians play a role in? 

  • Identifying processes and procedures that may be modified or eliminated to save time

  • Assisting in medication plans for the patient

  • Identifying ways to minimize side effects with the current medication regimen

  • Suggesting eliminating certain herbal products for better management of conditions

Correct answer: Identifying processes and procedures that may be modified or eliminated to save time

In regards to MTM, pharmacy technicians can identify processes and procedures that may be modified or eliminated to save time. This will free up time for pharmacists to provide MTM services to their patients. 

Assisting in medication plans for the patient, identifying ways to minimize side effects with current medication regimen, and suggesting eliminating certain herbal products for better management of conditions are all part of the MTM services that pharmacists provide, not pharmacy technicians. 

53.

Under which legislation can manufacturers market vitamins without FDA review?

  • Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

  • Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

  • Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1982

  • Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997

Correct answer: Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 classified dietary supplements as "food." As the result, manufacturers can market dietary supplements without FDA review.

The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 banned the selling/purchasing/trading of prescription drug samples.

The Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1982 ruled that over-the-counter drug products must have a tamper-evident seal.

The Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 allows for the statement "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription" to be shortened to "Rx only."

54.

Which of the following information is considered counseling and can only be communicated to patients by pharmacists?

  • Common side effects of medication

  • Name of medication

  • Dosage form

  • Route of administration

Correct answer: Common side effects of medication

Common side effects of medication, along with action to be taken if a dose is missed, duration of therapy, drug interactions, and contraindications, are considered counseling and can only be communicated to patients by pharmacists.

The following information is not considered counseling and can be given to patients by pharmacy technicians:

  • Name of medication
  • Dosage form
  • Dosage
  • Route of administration

55.

Which of the following issues is identified during the concurrent drug utilization evaluation? 

  • Duplicate therapy 

  • Therapeutic interchange 

  • Drug-allergy interaction

  • Clinical abuse/misuse 

Correct answer: Duplicate therapy 

Duplicate therapy is an issue that is commonly identified during a concurrent drug utilization evaluation. 

Therapeutic interchange, drug-allergy interaction, and clinical abuse/misuse are all issues identified during a prospective drug utilization evaluation. 

56.

How is the abbreviation "UD" often misinterpreted?

  • Mistaken as “unit dose”

  • Mistaken as “as directed”

  • Mistaken as “every day”

  • Mistaken as “right ear”

Correct answer: Mistaken as “unit dose”

"UD" is "ut dictum" in Latin, and that translates to “as directed.” It is often mistaken for “unit dose,” although there is no official abbreviation for this.

Fun fact: For centuries, prescriptions were written in Latin because physicians wanted to keep their remedies secret. Though this is no longer the case for modern medicine, the practice of using Latin abbreviations remains.

The abbreviation for “every day” is "q.d." or "QD." The abbreviation for “right ear” is "AD."

57.

When donning personal protective equipment (PPE), or cleanroom garb, what order should it be donned?

  • Shoe covers, hair cover, beard cover, face mask, hand washing, gown, and gloves

  • Face mask, gown, hand washing, gloves, hair cover, beard cover, and shoe covers

  • Hand washing, gloves, gown, face mask, hair cover, beard cover, and shoe covers

  • Hair cover, beard cover, face mask, gown, shoe covers, hand washing, and gloves

Correct answer: Shoe covers, hair cover, beard cover, face mask, hand washing, gown, and gloves

The order that PPE should be donned is shoe covers, hair cover, beard cover, face mask, hand washing, gown, and gloves. PPE should be donned in the order of what is considered to be the dirtiest (i.e., shoes) to the cleanest (i.e., washed hands).

The other choices are incorrect because they do not represent the order that PPE should be donned.

58.

Which one of the following cholesterol lowering medications works by forming a nonabsorbable complex with bile acids in the intestine?

  • Welchol (colesevelam)

  • Lopid (gemfibrozil)

  • Tricor (fenofibrate)

  • Zocor (simvastatin)

Correct answer: Welchol (colesevelam)

Welchol (colesevelam) binds to bile acids in the intestines and forms a complex which prevents gut reabsorption, thus lowering cholesterol.

Lopid (gemfibrozil) and Tricor (fenofibrate) are both fibric acid derivates used to lower cholesterol. Zocor (simvastatin) inhibits the enzyme that helps to synthesize cholesterol.

59.

What can AD be misinterpreted as?

  • Right eye

  • Every day

  • Left eye

  • Both ears

Correct answer: Right eye

The abbreviation “AD” indicates "right ear"; however, it is often misinterpreted for "right eye".

"Every day" is abbreviated as "QD". "Left eye" is abbreviated as "OS". "Both ears" is abbreviated as "AU".   

60.

Which error prevention strategy emphasizes certain letters to help draw attention to differences between two similar-looking medications? 

  • Tall man lettering

  • Look-alike/sound-alike

  • High-alert medication

  • "Do Not Crush" list 

Correct answer: Tall man lettering 

Tall man lettering is an error prevention strategy that emphasizes certain letters in order to highlight the differences between their spelling and prevent medication mix-ups. 

Look-alike/sound-alike deals with medication names that might sound or look similar; in these cases, emphasizing certain letters helps to differentiate between them. High-alert medications are drugs that can cause harm or even death to patients if used in error. The "Do Not Crush" list deals with medications that should not be crushed because crushing can affect the efficacy of the drug or cause harm to the patient.