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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

PTCB PTCE Exam Questions

Page 4 of 50

61.

In the direct compounding area (DCA), which solution is used to decontaminate a laminar air hood?

  • Isopropyl alcohol 70%

  • Isopropyl alcohol 100%

  • Isopropyl alcohol 80%

  • Isopropyl alcohol 50%

Correct answer: Isopropyl alcohol 70%

To clean the surfaces of a laminar air hood, use 70% isopropyl alcohol. A laminar air hood is a piece of sterile compounding equipment used to make compounded substances.

62.

Which of the following is an example of an anti-epileptic drug?

  • Lyrica

  • Strattera

  • Protonix

  • Zyprexa

Correct answer: Lyrica

Lyrica is the brand name for pregabalin, which is classified as an anti-epileptic drug. Other anti-epileptic drugs include Tegretol, Klonopin, Valium, Depakote, Cerebyx, Neurontin, Vimpat, Lamictal, Keppra, Trileptal, Luminal, Dilantin, Mysoline, Gabitril, Topamax, Depakene, and Zonegran. Anti-epileptic drugs are used to treat seizures, nerve pain, and psychiatric disorders.

Strattera is the brand name for atomoxetine and is classified as an attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) agent. Protonix is the brand name for pantoprazole and is classified as a proton pump inhibitor. Zyprexa is the brand name for olanzapine and is classified as an antipsychotic agent.

63.

Yelena Kozlova brings in the following prescription:

Lanoxin 0.125 mg 
Sig: Take 3 tabs PO daily 
Disp: 90 tablets

What is the total mg of Lanoxin Yelena Kozlova takes each day?

  • 0.375 mg

  • 3.75 mg

  • 0.25 mg

  • 2.5 mg

Correct answer: 0.375 mg

To find the total mg of Lanoxin taken at each dose, you will need to multiply 0.125 mg by 3.

64.

How many refills is a prescriber allowed to give on a schedule II prescription within six months?

  • 0

  • 1

  • 5

  • 8

Correct answer: 0

A schedule II prescription is not to be refilled. Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances must be written and signed by the practitioner.

Prescriptions for schedules III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to five times in six months. Prescriptions for schedule V controlled substances may be refilled as authorized by the practitioner. These prescriptions can be faxed, phoned, or electronically submitted to the pharmacy as long as state law permits.

65.

Which of the following is not an advantage of the solid dosage form?

  • Taking effects more quickly than liquid dosage form

  • Easy to package and transport

  • Lack smell or taste 

  • Suited for delayed-release medication

Correct answer: Taking effects more quickly than liquid dosage form

Advantages of solid dosage forms include the following:

  • Easy to package, transport, and dispense
  • Convenient for self-dosing
  • Lack smell or taste
  • Stable for products that are not stable in liquid form
  • Suites for delayed-release medications

Liquid dosage form is effective more quickly than solid dosage forms because the drug is already dissolved. 

66.

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) limited daily sales of pseudoephedrine to what amount?

  • 3.6 grams

  • 9 grams

  • 7.5 grams

  • 12.2 grams

Correct answer: 3.6 grams

CMEA limits daily sales of pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams.

CMEA limits monthly sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 9 grams. The federal law limits monthly mail order sales (30 days) of pseudoephedrine to 7.5 grams. CMEA does not allow a daily or a monthly pseudoephedrine limit of 12.2 grams.

67.

Which of the following antidiabetic medications has a contraindication with use in patients with congestive heart failure? 

  • Actos 

  • Invokana

  • Jardiance 

  • Farxiga 

Correct answer: Actos 

Actos (pioglitazone) is a thiazolidinedione, which has a class contraindication of congestive heart failure. 

Invokana (canagliflozin), Jardiance (empagliflozin), and Farxiga (dapagliflozin) are all a part of sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) and do not have this contraindication as a class. 

68.

If a prescriber does not want the pharmacy to substitute a generic for a name brand drug, what DAW code should be used by pharmacy personnel?

  • DAW 1

  • DAW 0

  • DAW 2

  • DAW 3

Correct answer: DAW 1

When prescribers write DAW 1 on prescriptions, they are stating that they are not allowing generic substitutions. DAW is the abbreviation used for "dispense as written."

A DAW 0 simply indicates that the prescriber will allow a generic substitution. A DAW 2 indicates that the patient did not want a generic substitution. A DAW 3 indicates that the prescriber and the patient allowed the substitution, but the pharmacist selected the brand to be dispensed.

69.

Which of the following best identifies the type of medications that use tall man letters?

  • Medications with similar spellings

  • All high-alert medications

  • All generic medications

  • Medications that start with "sulf-" and "hydr-"

Correct answer: Medications with similar spellings

The FDA, ISMP, and TJC promote the use of tall man letters (mixed-case letters) for medications that have look-alike drug names. The use of tall man letters has proven to reduce the errors caused by drug mix-ups because the mixed-case letters emphasize the dissimilarities in the medication’s name. An example of two look-alike/sound-alike drugs that use tall man letters is AcetaHEXAMIDE and AcetaZOLAMIDE.

Tall man lettering is not used for all high-alert medications, all generic medications, or medications that start with "sulf-" and "hydr-." There are some high-alert medications that do need tall man lettering, such as NovoLIN, which is often confused with NovoLOG.

70.

How many tablets should be given for a 30-day supply if the directions read 1-2 tabs PO TID?

  • 180

  • 90

  • 120

  • 60

Correct answer: 180

To answer this question, you must first understand the abbreviations. The abbreviation "tabs" means tablets, the abbreviation "PO" means by mouth, and the abbreviation "TID" means three times a day. Therefore, if a patient were to take 1-2 tablets three times a day, you would fill the prescription for the highest amount; thus, you would fill the prescription as if the patient were taking 2 tablets three times a day.

2 tablets × 3 times a day = 6 tablets a day × 30 days = 180 tablets

71.

If a DEA number begins with an “M,” what type of registrant does it signify?

  • A midlevel practitioner

  • A drug distributor

  • A hospital

  • A physician

Correct answer: A midlevel practitioner

A DEA number that begins with an “M” signifies a midlevel practitioner.

A drug distributor’s DEA number begins with a “P” or an “R.” A hospital’s DEA number begins with an “A,” “B,” or “F.” A physician’s DEA number begins with an “A,” “B,” or “F.”

72.

Which of the following statements regarding therapeutic interchange is not accurate?

  • Therapeutic interchange only occurs in retail pharmacies. 

  • Therapeutic interchange is performed to reduce drug costs.

  • A "Medically Necessary" statement is necessary if the physician intends to prescribe brand-name medication.

  • Therapeutic interchange is the substitution between brand and generic medication.

Correct answer: Therapeutic interchange only occurs in retail pharmacies. 

Therapeutic interchange is the substitution between AB-rated medications, which are brand and generic medications; the goal is to reduce drug costs. This interchange can be done in the pharmacy without the physician's approval. 

If the physician indicates "Brand Name Necessary" and "Dispense As Written" on the prescription, the generic must not be dispensed. 

Therapeutic interchange also occurs in the hospital where formulary automatically permits therapeutic substitution without the physician's approval. 

73.

After preparing an IV solution, a technician should always check the IV bag for which of the following?

  • Precipitate

  • Volume

  • Weight

  • Odor

Correct answer: Precipitate

After preparing an IV solution, a technician should always check the IV bag for precipitate. An IV solution should be checked for clarity to make sure it does not contain solid flakes from chemicals that may precipitate.

An IV solution should always be checked for clarity, not volume, weight, or odor.

74.

Which of the following medications works by decreasing the thickness of mucus, thus helping to relieve coughing? 

  • Guaifenesin

  • Benzonatate 

  • Dextromethorphan

  • Cyproheptadine

Correct answer: Guaifenesin

Guaifenesin, the active ingredient in Mucinex, is an expectorant which works by decreasing the thickness of mucus, thus removing it from both the lungs and airway during coughing. 

Both benzonatate and dextromethorphan are antitussives used to suppress coughing. Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine used to treat conditions such as allergies, insomnia, and rashes. 

75.

If a drug costs $9.99, and it retails for $17.99, what is its markup rate?

  • 80%

  • 18%

  • 56%

  • 44%

Correct answer: 80%

To find the markup rate, first find the drug’s markup (retail price – drug cost): $17.99 - $9.99 = $8.00. 

Then, divide the drug’s markup by the drug’s cost and multiply by 100: ($8.00/$9.99) × 100 = 80%.

76.

The prescription information required to fill an order for a patient includes all except which of the following?

  • Prescription’s fill date

  • Patient’s home address

  • Medication’s strength

  • Physician’s signature

Correct answer: Prescription’s fill date

The prescription information required to fill an order for a patient does not include the prescription’s fill date; however, it does require the date that the prescription was written.

The prescription information required to fill an order for a patient includes the following:

  • Date that the prescription was written
  • Patient’s name
  • Patient’s home address
  • Medication’s name
  • Medication’s strength
  • Dosage form
  • Quantity of medication to be dispensed
  • Subscription or instructions to the pharmacist
  • Physician’s signature

77.

Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program has been established because its drug causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events?

  • THALIDOMID REMS

  • iPLEDGE

  • Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.)

  • Clozaril National Registry

Correct answer: THALIDOMID REMS

THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been established because Thalomid (thalidomide) causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events.

iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure people who are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become pregnant. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS program that has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide). Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).

78.

A physician ordered acyclovir cream for a patient, but a nurse administered acyclovir tablets instead. 

What type of medication error occurred?

  • Wrong dosage-form error

  • Wrong time error

  • Unauthorized drug error

  • Improper dose error

Correct answer: Wrong dosage-form error

If a physician ordered a cream and a nurse administered tablets, it is considered a wrong dosage-form error. A wrong dosage-form error occurs when a patient receives medication in a different dosage form than what was prescribed by the physician.

A wrong time error occurs when a patient receives their medication at a time that varies from its scheduled time. An unauthorized drug error occurs when a patient receives medication that was not prescribed to them. An improper dose error occurs when a patient receives more than or less than the prescribed dose.

79.

Which class of medication can increase blood glucose? 

  • Oral contraceptives 

  • Amiodarones

  • Heparin

  • Cephalosporins

Correct answer: Oral contraceptives 

Oral contraceptives can increase blood glucose in a test. 

Amiodarones, heparin, and cephalosporins do not increase blood glucose. 

80.

If an individual was looking for an over-the-counter antacid, which of the following drugs would they not be able to purchase?

  • Ranitidine

  • Lansoprazole

  • Famotidine

  • Omeprazole

Correct answer: Ranitidine

Ranitidine (Zantac) was an antihistamine used for reflux symptoms. In 2020, ranitidine was taken off the market due to cancerous compounds found in their products. The substitute that is used today is famotidine (Pepcid). 

Lansoprazole (Prevacid), famotidine (Pepcid), and omeprazole (Prilosec) can be found over the counter or as a prescription from a prescriber. 

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