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PTCB PTCE Exam Questions
Page 6 of 50
101.
Which of the following is a side effect commonly associated with the alpha1 receptor antagonist drug class?
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Orthostatic hypotension
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Bradycardia
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Constipation
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Weight gain
Correct answer: Orthostatic hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension (rapid decrease in blood pressure due to standing up too quickly) is a common side effect associated with the alpha1 receptor antagonist drug class. Other common side effects include dizziness, priapism, and syncope. The alpha1 receptor antagonist drug class is used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Constipation is a common side effect associated with the anticholinergic drug class. Bradycardia is a common side effect associated with the alpha2-adrenergic receptor agonist drug class. Weight gain is a common side effect associated with the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug class.
102.
Mesalamine comes in which of the following formulations?
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Suppositories
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Patches
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Suspensions
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Creams
Correct answer: Suppositories
Mesalamine is an antiinflammatory medication used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. In addition to suppositories, mesalamine also comes in extended release oral tablets and enemas. Suppositories would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “For rectal use” or “For vaginal use”.
Patches would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “Apply to skin”. Suspension dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “Shake well”. Creams, lotions, and ointment dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads “For topical use” or “For external use only”.
103.
When would a pharmacy technician use a dispense as written (DAW) 6 to electronically submit a prescription claim?
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When an override is necessary
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When no product selection is indicated
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When a substitution is allowed, but the generic is not available in the marketplace
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When a substitution is allowed, but the generic drug is not stocked
Correct answer: When an override is necessary
A DAW 6 is used as an override. Pharmacies use DAW codes when submitting third-party claims during the electronic billing process to provide additional information to insurance companies.
A DAW 0 is used when no product selection is indicated. A DAW 8 is used when a substitution is allowed, but the generic is not available in the marketplace. A DAW 4 is used when a substitution is allowed, but the generic drug is not stocked.
104.
Which of the following is a fibric acid derivative?
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Gemfibrozil
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Cholestyramine
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Colesevelam
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Colestipol
Correct answer: Gemfibrozil
Gemfibrozil is in the class of fibric acid derivatives.
Cholestyramine, colesevelam, and colestipol are all in the class of bile acid sequestrants.
105.
How long must the horizontal laminar workbench be turned on before compounding?
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30 minutes
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1 hour
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1.5 hours
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10 minutes
Correct answer: 30 minutes
When using the aseptic technique, you should run the laminar airflow workbench (also known as hood) for 30 minutes before use if it isn’t in continuous use. The aseptic technique refers to the principles of sterile compounding.
The other choices are incorrect because they do not represent how long a laminar airflow hood should be run before use.
106.
If you were dispensing Phenergan, which auxiliary label would you most likely apply to its package?
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"For rectal use"
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"For topical use"
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"For external use only"
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"Apply to skin"
Correct answer: "For rectal use"
Phenergan (promethazine) is a medication used to treat nausea. It is also found as a tablet. However, when a patient cannot ingest it orally, they can also take it as a rectal suppository. The “For rectal use” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing a suppository.
The “For topical use” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing an ointment, cream, or lotion. The “For external use only” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing an ointment, cream, or lotion. The “Apply to skin” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing a patch.
107.
Which of the following medications is an antiplatelet?
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Cilostazol
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Apixaban
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Heparin
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Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct answer: Cilostazol
Cilostazol is an antiplatelet used to prevent and interfere with platelet aggregation, thus preventing and treating blood clots.
Both apixaban (Eliquis) and heparin are anticoagulants used to block the formation of fibrin, thus preventing and treating blood clots. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is a vasodilator used in the treatment of angina (chest pains).
108.
How many pints are in 10 cups of a liquid suspension?
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5 pt
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2.5 pt
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3.3 pt
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20 pt
Correct answer: 5 pt
To find out how many pints are in 10 cups of a liquid suspension, know that there are 2 cups in 1 pint. Therefore, 10 c × 1 pt/2 c = 5 pt.
109.
You receive an order for 40 mg BID of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 4 mg/mL of Drug X in stock. How many milliliters are needed of Drug X per dose?
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10 mL
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80 mL
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5 mL
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20 mL
Correct answer: 10 mL
This question can be answered by setting it up as a ratio and proportion:
4 mg/mL = 40 mg/x
4x = 40 mL
x = 40/4 mL
x = 10 mL
110.
Which of the following is not a factor affecting the new risk classification of Category 1 CSP and Category 2 CSP?
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Personnel training
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Complexity of compounding process
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Preparation site
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Batch size
Correct answer: Personnel training
The former classification of low, medium, and high risk is no longer used. The factors that affect the new risk classification are as follows:
- Batch size
- Complexity of compounding process
- Length of time between the start of compounding and administration to patient
- Preparation site
111.
Which of the following medications is an antitussive?
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Benzonatate
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Guaifenesin
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Oxymetazoline
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Pseudoephedrine
Correct answer: Benzonatate
Benzonatate is an antitussive that suppresses coughs.
Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps to remove mucus from both the lungs and airways during coughing. Oxymetazoline and pseudoephedrine are both decongestants that help to treat nasal congestion.
112.
Which of the following sig would be used if a prescriber's directions for the patient is to take 1 tablet by mouth every six hours?
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1 tab PO q6h
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1 T PO q6h
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1 tab NPO q6h
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1 tbs PO q6h
Correct answer: 1 tab PO q6h
The sig "1 tab PO q6h" means 1 tablet by mouth every six hours.
The sig "1 T PO q6h" means 1 temperature by mouth every six hours. The sig "1 tab NPO q6h" means 1 tablet nothing by mouth every six hours. The sig "1 tbs PO q6h" means 1 tablespoon by mouth every six hours.
113.
Which class of medications promotes sodium and water excretion in the urine which results in reduction of vasoconstriction?
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Thiazide diuretics
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Loop diuretics
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Potassium sparing diuretics
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Alpha-blockers
Correct answer: Thiazide diuretics
Thiazide diuretics promote sodium and water excretion in the urine, which results in lower sodium and water in blood vessels and leads to a reduction in vasoconstriction, thus lowering blood pressure.
Loop diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in urinary excretion of water and a reduction in blood pressure. Potassium-sparing diuretics exchange sodium excretion in urine while returning potassium to the body. Alpha-blockers relax smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels and prostatic tissue, thus both lowering blood pressure and helping with urinary symptoms.
114.
Gabapentin and divalproex are anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) prescribed to patients for which purpose?
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Suppress nerve activity
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Block the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
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Stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
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Delay the breakdown of incretins
Correct answer: Suppress nerve activity
Gabapentin and divalproex are anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) prescribed to patients for suppressing nerve activity. AEDs are used to treat seizures, nerve pain, or psychiatric disorders. Other AEDs include carbamazepine, lacosamide, lamotrigine, levetiracetam, and phenytoin.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used to block the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine to treat depression and eating disorders. Sulfonylureas are used to stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin to treat type II diabetes. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are used to delay the breakdown of incretins to treat type II diabetes.
115.
Which of the following is not considered an error-prevention strategy?
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Separating inventory based on drug class
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Emphasizing the labeling for buPROPion and busPIRone
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Writing out "right ear" instead of using "AD"
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Separating medications based on look-alike names
Correct answer: Separating inventory based on drug class
Separating inventory based on drug class is not necessary nor does it help to prevent errors.
However, emphasizing the labeling for buPROPion and busPIRone, writing out certain abbreviations that can be misinterpreted, such as AD, and separating medications based on look-alike names are all error-prevention strategies.
116.
A nurse injected an outdated prescribed epinephrine injection into a patient’s thigh because a bee stung the patient. What type of medication error occurred?
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Deteriorated drug error
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Wrong dosage-form error
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Wrong drug-preparation error
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Wrong administration-technique error
Correct answer: Deteriorated drug error
If a nurse injected an outdated prescribed epinephrine injection into a patient, it is considered a deteriorated drug error. A deteriorated drug error occurs when an expired medication or a physically or chemically compromised medication is administered.
A wrong dosage-form error occurs when a patient receives a medication in a different dosage form than was prescribed by the physician. A wrong drug-preparation error occurs when a drug is improperly formulated prior to administration. A wrong administration-technique error occurs when a medication is improperly administered.
117.
Which of the following medications is an inhaled anticholinergic?
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Atrovent
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Asmanex
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Pulmicort
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Qvar
Correct answer: Atrovent
Atrovent (ipratropium) is an inhaled anticholinergic that is used in the treatment of asthma and COPD.
Asmanex (mometasone), Pulmicort (budesonide), and Qvar (beclomethasone) are all inhaled corticosteroids.
118.
Prescriptions for Schedule II medications may be faxed to the pharmacy and accepted as an original prescription in all except which of the following situations?
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When the order is being filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting
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When the order is being compounded for home infusion
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When the order is being dispensed to a patient in a long-term care facility
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When the order is being dispensed to a patient in a hospice care program
Correct answer: When the order is being filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting
Faxed prescriptions for Schedule II medications may not be accepted as an original prescription when filled and dispensed to a patient in a home setting. A retail pharmacy may fill a Schedule II order using the faxed prescription; however, the pharmacy may not dispense the Schedule II order until it receives the original signed prescription from the physician.
Faxed prescriptions for Schedule II medications may be faxed and accepted as original prescriptions when they are being compounded for home infusion, dispensed to a patient in a long-term care facility, and dispensed to a patient in a hospice care program.
119.
If a physician used a word with the prefix "tachy-," what would the word mean?
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Fast
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Slow
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Above
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Below
Correct answer: Fast
The prefix "tachy-" means fast.
The prefix "brady-" means slow. The prefix "hyper-" means above. The prefix "hypo-" means below.
120.
Which of the following statements describes the Orange Book?
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Identification of drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by the FDA
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Provides drug pricing and drug information
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Web application for clinical knowledge of medications
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Listing of biological products
Correct answer: Identification of drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by the FDA
The other answer options are described as follows:
- Red Book: Provides drug pricing and drug information
- Micromedex or Lexicomp: Web application for clinical knowledge of medications
- Purple Book: Listing of biological products