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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

PTCB PTCE Exam Questions

Page 8 of 50

141.

Which of the following requires a pharmacist's intervention? 

  • A patient asking what to do if a dose is missed

  • A patient asking if Xarelto and Eliquis are in the same class

  • A patient asking if Eliquis is a blood thinner

  • A patient asking about the strength of their prescription

Correct answer: A patient asking what to do if a dose is missed

If a patient wants to know what to do if a dose is missed, the pharmacy technician should allow the pharmacist to provide this information. 

If a patient asks if two medications are in the same class, an indication for Eliquis, or the strength of their prescription, this information can be provided by a pharmacy technician because it is basic knowledge and does not require clinical skills. If a technician is unsure, they should always consult with a pharmacist first before providing any information. 

142.

A prescription has the following directions: give 15 μg SQ ac. How can these directions be interpreted to the patient?

  • Give 15 micrograms subcutaneously before meals

  • Give 15 micrograms subcutaneously after meals

  • Give 15 micrograms sublingually every evening

  • Give 15 micrograms sublingually every morning

Correct answer: Give 15 micrograms subcutaneously before meals

The abbreviation "μg" means micrograms. The abbreviation "SQ" means subcutaneous, and the abbreviation "ac" means before meals. Therefore, directions that read "give 15 μg SQ ac" can be interpreted as "Give 15 micrograms subcutaneously before meals." Subcutaneous means under the skin.

The abbreviation used for "after meals" is "pc." The abbreviation for "sublingually" is "SL," and the abbreviation for "every evening" is "QPM." The abbreviation for "every morning" is "QAM."

143.

Opioids are considered high-alert medications for which of the following reasons?

  • They can cause fatal respiratory suppression.

  • They can cause fatal bleeding.

  • They can interfere with the ability to breathe.

  • They can cause fatal hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: They can cause fatal respiratory suppression.

Opioids are considered high-alert medications because they can cause fatal respiratory suppression. Opioids, such as morphine, hydromorphone, and fentanyl, are used to treat severe pain.

Anticoagulants are considered high-alert medications because they can cause fatal bleeding. Neuromuscular blockers are considered high-alert medications because they can interfere with the ability to breathe. Insulins are considered high-alert medications because they can cause fatal hypoglycemia.

144.

Quillivant XR is a medication found in which of the following formulations?

  • Suspension

  • Patch

  • Cream

  • Ointment

Correct answer: Suspension

Quillivant XR (methylphenidate) is a medication used to treat ADHD in children. It is found in a powder form at first, but once reconstituted with sterile water prior to dispensing, it becomes a suspension. The “Shake well” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing a suspension.

The “Apply to skin” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing a patch. The “For topical use” auxiliary label would be applied when dispensing an ointment, cream, or lotion.

145.

In regard to controlled substance refills, which statement is false?

  • C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months.

  • C-II refills are not permitted.

  • C-III and C-IV refills are permitted for up to 5 refills.

  • C-V refills are permitted with no maximum number of refills.

Correct answer: C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months.

It is false that C-III and C-IV refills are valid for 12 months because they are only valid for 6 months.

It is true that C-II refills are not permitted, C-III and C-IV refills are permitted up to 5 refills, and C-V refills are permitted with no maximum number of refills.

146.

Which of the following indications would be treated with meperidine?

  • Acute pain

  • Osteoporosis

  • Hyperthyroidism

  • Endometriosis

Correct answer: Acute pain

Meperidine is the generic name for Demerol, which is classified as an opioid. Opioids are used to treat acute or chronic pain with different levels of severity. Other drugs used to treat acute or chronic pain are hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco), hydromorphone (Dilaudid), methadone, morphine (MS Contin, Kadian), oxycodone, oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet), and pentazocine.

Osteoporosis is treated with alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate, ibandronate, or zoledronic acid. 

Hyperthyroidism is treated with methimazole (Tapazole) or propylthiouracil.

Endometriosis is treated with naproxen sodium (Aleve) or ibuprofen (Advil).

147.

Which of the following antibiotics is in the aminoglycosides class? 

  • Gentamicin

  • Levofloxacin

  • Azithromycin

  • Doxycycline

Correct answer: Gentamicin 

Gentamicin is in the class of aminoglycosides, which inhibits protein synthesis of bacteria. 

Levofloxacin is in the fluoroquinolone class. Azithromycin is in the macrolide class. Doxycycline is in the tetracycline class. 

148.

Which of the following happened as a result of the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005?

  • Required the sale of methamphetamine to be logged

  • Required medical offices and clinics to be certified as treatment centers

  • Required 30-day prescription allotments

  • Required adverse reactions to be reported quarterly

Correct answer: Required the sale of methamphetamine to be logged

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 positioned pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and ephedrine in a Controlled Substance Act category. This movement subjected methamphetamine to sales restrictions, record-keeping requirements, and storage requirements.

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 did not require medical offices to become certified, allot a 30-day prescription, or report adverse reactions quarterly.

149.

What type of adverse effects does FAERS report?

  • Biological products 

  • Dietary supplements 

  • Vaccines 

  • Investigational drugs

Correct answer: Biological products 

The FDA Adverse Event Reporting System (FAERS) is a database that reports medication errors for drugs and therapeutic biologic products. 

Adverse events of dietary supplements, vaccines, and investigational drugs are not reported by FAERS. Adverse events are reported on Medwatch, vaccines are reported on VAERS, and adverse events of investigational drugs are reported to the manufacturing companies. 

150.

How many fluid ounces are in a gallon of liquid suspension?

  • 128 ounces

  • 473 ounces

  • 180 ounces

  • 64 ounces

Correct answer: 128 ounces

  1. Convert gallons to quarts: 1 gallon = 4 quarts (4 quarts per gallon)
  2. Convert quarts to pints: 4 quarts = 8 pints (2 pints per quart)
  3. Convert pints to cups: 8 pints = 16 cups (2 cups per pint)
  4. Convert cups to fluid ounces: 16 cups = 128 ounces (8 fluid ounces per cup)

151.

If a drug costs $32.50, the pharmacy’s overhead cost is $4.75, and the pharmacy wants to make a net profit of $12.50, what should be the drug’s selling price?

  • $49.75

  • $17.25

  • $37.25

  • $45

Correct answer: $49.75

To find the drug’s selling price, start by adding the cost of the drug to the overhead cost to obtain the drug’s total cost: $32.50 + $4.75 = $37.25. 

Then, add the drug’s total cost to its net profit to obtain the drug’s selling price: $37.25 + $12.50 = $49.75.

152.

Prescribing errors include all except which of the following?

  • Pharmacy calculation

  • Omitted quantity

  • Missing route of administration

  • Incorrect medication strength

Correct answer: Pharmacy calculation

Pharmacy calculation is an error that occurs during the pharmacy workflow and is considered a dispensing error.

Errors that occur during the prescribing process by prescribers and/or healthcare providers are defined as "prescribing errors." Prescribing errors include omitted quantity, no route of administration, incorrect medication strength, missing or incorrect patient allergies, incorrect medication, and omitted refills.

153.

Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are associated with taking the drug it was established for?

  • Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.)

  • iPLEDGE

  • THALIDOMID REMS

  • Clozaril National Registry

Correct answer: Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.)

Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS program that has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide).

iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure women who are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become pregnant. THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been established because Thalomid (thalidomide) causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events. Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).

154.

If a drug product is required to be stored in cool conditions, what should the temperature range be?

  • 8° to 15°C

  • 20° to 25°C

  • 2° to 8°C

  • -25° to -10°C

Correct answer: 8° to 15°C

The temperature range 8° to 15°C is considered to be cool.

The temperature range 20° to 25°C is considered to be room temperature. The temperature range 2° to 8°C is considered to be cold. The temperature range -25° to -10°C is considered to be freezing.

155.

Which of the following is a tuberculosis agent?

  • Rifadin

  • Gastrocom

  • Dexilant

  • Carafate

Correct answer: Rifadin

Rifadin is the brand name for rifampin and is classified as a tuberculosis agent. Other tuberculosis agents include Seromycin, Myambutol, Laniazid, Nydrazid, Rifamate, Floxin, and Priftin.

Gastrocom is the brand name for cromolyn and is classified as a mast cell stabilizer; cromolyn can be used to prevent asthmatic symptoms. 

Dexilant is the brand name for dexlansoprazole and is classified as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI); PPIs are indicated to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

Carafate is the brand name for sucralfate and is classified as a coating agent that can be used as an antacid agent. 

156.

Which of the following osteoporosis medications is dosed every six months? 

  • Prolia 

  • Forteo 

  • Fosamax 

  • Boniva 

Correct answer: Prolia 

Prolia (denosumab) is an injection dosed every six months. 

Forteo (teriparatide) is an injection dosed daily. Fosamax (alendronate) is in the form of tablets that are dosed weekly. Boniva (ibandronate) is also in the form of tablets that are dosed monthly. 

157.

Which of the following errors can be fixed by a technician by calling the prescriber? 

  • Date of prescription

  • Changing medication due to known allergies

  • Changing strength

  • Changing directions

Correct answer: Date of prescription

Technicians can obtain the date of prescription if omitted. They can also verify certain aspects of the prescription such as strength, directions, and dose.

However, if there are any changes that need to be made, especially if a medication has to be changed, a pharmacist must take over at that point. 

158.

The Joint Commission accredits what type of health care facilities? 

  • Hospitals

  • Nursing homes

  • Clinics 

  • Retail pharmacies 

Correct answer: Hospitals 

The Joint Commission (TJC) is responsible for accrediting hospitals. 

159.

Information required on a prescription label includes all except which of the following?

  • Prescription’s date written

  • Pharmacy’s name

  • Medication’s strength

  • Prescription number

Correct answer: Prescription’s date written

The prescription label is not required to obtain the date that the prescription was written. However, the prescription label does need the date that the prescription was filled.

The information required on the prescription label includes the following:

  • Prescription’s fill date
  • Prescription number
  • Pharmacy’s name and address
  • Patient’s name
  • Prescriber’s name
  • Directions for use
  • Prescription’s generic or brand name
  • Medication’s strength
  • Drug manufacturer’s name
  • Quantity dispensed
  • Prescription’s expiration date
  • Pharmacist’s initials
  • Number of refills allowed

160.

Which of the following is not information a pharmacy technician can provide to a patient?

  • The duration of therapy

  • The name of the medication

  • The dosage form

  • The route of administration

Correct answer: The duration of therapy 

Giving the duration of therapy is considered counseling and needs to be provided by a pharmacist. 

A pharmacy technician can provide information regarding the name, dosage form, and route of administration to a patient. 

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