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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 5 of 50

81.

A patient undergoes a cemented total knee replacement. How soon after the surgery can they begin ambulating?

  • Immediately (with walker)

  • Immediately (with least restrictive assistive device as tolerated)

  • 2 days post-op

  • 1 week post-op

Correct answer: Immediately (with walker)

After a cemented knee replacement, most patients are expected to be up and walking immediately with a walker. At 3 weeks, most can progress to a cane. By week 4, most should be full weight-bearing, without an assistive device, dependent on individual circumstances.

82.

Which type of multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by the progression of symptoms from onset with no or minimal episodes of plateau?

  • Primary-progressive MS

  • Relapsing-remitting MS

  • Secondary-progressive MS 

  • Progressive-relapsing MS 

Correct answer: Primary-progressive MS

Primary-progressive MS progresses from onset with no (or limited) plateaus. These patients may experience temporary, minor improvements along their course of progression without marked periods of remission or relapse.

Relapsing-remitting MS is characterized by cycles of exacerbation/remission with long periods of stability. These patients may have minimal long-term impairment. Secondary-progressive MS begins as relapsing-remitting MS and turns into progressive MS. Progressive-relapsing MS follows a progressive course with periodic acute relapses. In this type, there is a loss of function and progressive worsening with each exacerbation.

83.

A PTA is working with a patient shortly after a transtibial amputation, and is instructing the patient in ambulation while using a prosthesis. The patient presents with a medial thrust at midstance.

What is the MOST LIKELY cause of this gait deviation?

  • Foot is outset too much

  • Socket is set too far forward

  • Socket is tilted anteriorly

  • Dorsiflexion bumper is too soft

Correct answer: Foot is outset too much

When working with a patient post transtibial amputation, the PTA may discover a number of common gait deviations. If the foot is outset too much, the patient may display a medial thrust at midstance.

If the socket is set too far forward or tilted anteriorly, the patient may exhibit excessive knee flexion during stance. If the dorsiflexion bumper is too soft, the patient may exhibit drop off or premature knee flexion in stance.

84.

A patient displays a flexion synergy in her scapula when performing rows with a theraband. Which of the following BEST describes the flexion synergy for the scapula?

  • Retraction and elevation

  • Elevation and protraction

  • Protraction and depression

  • Retraction and depression

Correct answer: Retraction and elevation

The flexion synergy for the scapula involves retraction and elevation. The extension synergy involves protraction.

85.

A patient brings in her recent EKG results. The PT notes that the reading shows wide QRS waves and a short QT interval. Which of the following might cause this reading on an EKG?

  • Hypercalcemia

  • Hypocalcemia

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Hypokalemia

Correct answer: Hypercalcemia

High calcium levels can lead to a wide QRS and a short QT interval.

Low calcium levels can lead to a long QT interval. High potassium levels can lead to a wide QRS, flat and/or peaked P wave. Low potassium levels can cause a flat t wave, which may be inverted.

86.

A PTA is ranging the shoulder of a patient with adhesive capsulitis. Which of the following motions would be expected to be MOST limited in comparison to the uninvolved shoulder?

  • External rotation

  • Adduction

  • Internal rotation

  • Extension

Correct answer: External rotation

Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, usually results in motion loss in a capsular pattern. For the shoulder, this means the greatest loss will be in external rotation, followed by abduction, then flexion, then internal rotation.

87.

Which type of speech and communication disorder is characterized by the ability to comprehend spoken language but significant difficulty in producing speech?

  • Broca's motor aphasia

  • Receptive aphasia

  • Wernicke's aphasia 

  • Dysarthria

Correct answer: Broca's motor aphasia

There are many types of speech impairments that can affect patients after a stroke or other cerebral vascular accident. Broca's motor aphasia (also called expressive aphasia or nonfluent aphasia) occurs from damage to Broca's area and results in speech that is awkward and restricted.

The remaining answer options are incorrect. Receptive aphasia (also known as Wernicke's aphasia or fluent aphasia) occurs from damage to Wernicke's area. With this condition, spontaneous speech is preserved and flows smoothly, but auditory comprehension is impaired. Conduction aphasia (or association aphasia) is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus (the neural fibers that connect Wernicke's and Broca's areas). It causes patients to have difficulty finding words and repeating phrases. Dysarthria is characterized by a limited ability to control movements of the jaw, tongue, and respiratory structures needed for speech control. The patient can understand spoken language and use the correct words, but spoken words are hard to understand.

88.

A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who received and began wearing a new AFO (ankle foot orthosis) two weeks ago. The therapist inspects the skin at the ankle and notices an area of redness with a slight blister formation over an area of friction with the new orthotic.

What type of pressure injury is this?

  • Stage II

  • Stage I

  • Stage III

  • Unstageable 

Correct answer: Stage II

Therapists should be aware of the types of pressure injuries (also known as decubitus ulcers) that patients may acquire throughout treatment. Stage II pressure injuries present as abrasions or blisters.

Stage I pressure injuries exhibit non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Stage III pressure injuries involve a crater that extends through the epidermis and dermis. Stage IV pressure injuries have full thickness skin loss with extensive destruction and damage. This injury is not unstageable.

89.

When applying iontophoresis, a PTA may use a number of agents to achieve the desired effect. Which of the following agents is PRIMARILY used for pain relief?

  • Xylocaine

  • Dexamethasone

  • Hyaluronidase

  • Acetate

Correct answer: Xylocaine

Physical therapists use iontophoresis to transport medications through skin or mucous membranes using a direct current. Iontophoresis is used for a variety of conditions, including ulcers on the skin, fungal infections, and muscle spasms. Xylocaine has a positive polarity and is used to achieve analgesia (pain relief). Lidocaine (which has a positive polarity) and salicylate (which has a negative polarity) may be used for the same purpose.

Dexamethasone phosphate is indicated for inflammatory conditions. Hyaluronidase is indicated for edema reduction. Acetate is indicated for calcium deposits.

All substances may have a secondary or indirect effect of pain relief.

90.

It is important for a physical therapist assistant to understand all the components of the plan of care, as put forth by the supervising physical therapist. Which of the following options is LEAST LIKELY to be a component of a physical therapy goal?

  • Where the treatment will take place

  • Who will participate in the activity

  • A specific measure for success

  • A time measure

Correct answer: Where the treatment will take place

While the location of treatment may be included in the plan of care, it is not a necessary component of the physical therapy goals for all patients. For example, outpatient treatment may be performed in a physical therapy office, with the expectation that the patient will return home after each session. For these patients, independence and the ability to go home are not important components of the plan of care. 

Every plan of care should include information about which activities will be performed, who will participate, how the physical therapist will define "success," and the time it will take to reach established goals.

91.

Which of the following conditions is considered a precaution (but not a contraindication) for electrical stimulation?

  • Impaired mentation 

  • Active bleeding

  • Superficial metal implants 

  • Epilepsy

Correct answer: Impaired mentation 

Although electrical stimulation can be an effective therapy for a variety of conditions, it has several precautions and contraindications. Impaired mentation is a precaution, not a strict contraindication.

Contraindications for electrical stimulation include:

  • Pacemakers
  • Unstable arrhythmias
  • Suspected epilepsy or seizure disorders
  • Transcerebrally or transthoracically in the presence of active bleeding or infection
  • Superficial metal implants
  • Pharyngeal or laryngeal muscles
  • Over the following:
    • Carotid sinus
    • Thrombosis
    • Eyes
    • Thoracic region
    • Phrenic nerve
    • Urinary bladder stimulators
    • Abdomen or low back during pregnancy

Precautions for electrical stimulation include:

  • Cardiac disease
  • Areas of impaired sensation
  • Malignant tumors
  • Open wounds
  • Hypotension
  • Hypertension
  • Excessive edema
  • Bleeding disorders
  • Menstruating uterus
  • Pregnancy during labor and delivery

92.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

The patient notes that he is independent with most things, but requires help with a few tasks around the home, such as cooking. Which of the following classifications is MOST appropriate for this patient’s CP severity?

  • Mild

  • Moderate

  • Severe

  • Moderate Type II

Correct answer: Mild

CP is often categorized by severity. Mild cases lead to significant independence, with little assistance needed, such as for tasks around the home like cooking. 

Moderate severity refers to those who can ambulate or move on their own, but who require more assistance. Severe cases require significant levels of assistance with different areas of life and mobility.

Moderate Type II is not a category for this disorder.

93.

While treating a patient with a partial-thickness wound, the PTA applies adhesive wafers containing absorptive particles. What type of dressing is the therapist using?

  • Hydrocolloids

  • Foams

  • Hydrogels

  • Alginates

Correct answer: Hydrocolloids

Hydrocolloids are adhesive wafers that contain absorptive particles which interact with wound fluid to form a gelatinous mass over the wound bed. They can be occlusive or semi-occlusive. They are indicated for protection of partial-thickness wounds and wounds with mild exudate, maintaining a moist wound environment.

Hydrogels are water- or glycerine-based gels insoluble in water. They are available as solid sheets, amorphous gels, or impregnated gauze. They are used for partial- and full-thickness wounds and those with necrosis and slough. Alginates are soft, absorbent, nonwoven dressings derived from seaweed and often used for wounds with moderate to large amounts of exudate. Foams are semipermeable membranes that are either hydrophilic or hydrophobic. They vary in thickness, absorptive capacity, and adhesive properties. They are indicated for partial- and full-thickness wounds with minimal or moderate exudate.

94.

Which of the following pediatric disorders is LEAST LIKELY to be genetic in origin?

  • Leg length discrepancy

  • Torticollis

  • Osteogenesis imperfecta

  • Pes planus

Correct answer: Leg length discrepancy

Leg length discrepancies are disorders of bones, muscles, and/or joints. They may be caused by the disuse or overuse of bones, muscles, or joints due to illness or disease, bone cancer, or traumatic injuries that damage growth plates. This disorder is not genetic. This issue may be functional (caused by overly tight or weak muscles) or structural (an actual mismatch in the size of the bones and tissues involved).

Torticollis may be caused by genetic predisposition in addition to other factors such as birth trauma or a restrictive intrauterine environment. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited disorder transmitted by an autosomal dominant gene. The possible causes of pes planus (flat foot) include genetic predisposition, muscle weakness, trauma, and disease.

95.

A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient with a stage III pressure ulcer. This lesion:

  • Does not extend through the underlying fascia

  • Presents as a shallow crater

  • Is likely to be necrotic

  • Is not reversible

Correct answer: Does not extend through the underlying fascia

Stage III pressure ulcers do not extend through the underlying fascia.

Stage II pressure ulcers present as shallow craters. Stage IV pressure ulcers are likely to be necrotic. Deep tissue injuries are not reversible and will likely progress to full-thickness injuries.

96.

An examiner tests a patient for the presence of the Hornblower sign. What does the examiner suspect, and what is a positive finding?

  • Rotator cuff pathology; cannot laterally rotate the arm

  • Rotator cuff pathology; gives way

  • SLAP lesions; experiences pain and/or a clicking or catching sensation

  • SLAP lesions; experiences pain in the anterior shoulder

Correct answer: Rotator cuff pathology; cannot laterally rotate the arm

When assessing a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the examiner may test for the presence of the Hornblower sign. In a positive finding, the patient cannot laterally rotate the arm.

The infraspinatus muscle test also tests for rotator cuff pathology; it is positive if the patient gives way. The compression-rotation test and Speed's test both test for the presence of SLAP lesions. The compression-rotation test is positive if the patient experiences pain and/or a clicking or catching sensation. Speed's test is positive if the patient experiences pain in the anterior shoulder.

97.

A patient is a baseball pitcher and has developed  nerve entrapment. They have pain at the lateral elbow and paresthesia into the posterior aspect of the forearm. Which nerve is MOST likely involved?

  • Radial nerve

  • Median nerve

  • Musculocutaneous nerve 

  • Ulnar nerve

Correct answer: Radial nerve

Radial nerve entrapment occurs in the radial tunnel, entrapping the distal branches of the nerve. This condition is the result of overhead activities and throwing. Patients experience paresthesia in a radial nerve distribution (over the posterior forearm and posterior aspect of the hand).

Median nerve entrapment occurs within the pronator teres muscle and under the superficial head of the flexor digitorum superficialis. Clinical signs include aching pain with weakness in forearm muscles and paresthesia in median nerve distribution. Ulnar nerve entrapment may be caused by direct trauma to the cubital tunnel, traction due to laxity in the medial elbow, compression due to thickening of the retinaculum, hypertrophy of flexor carpi ulnaris, or DJD (dejenerative joint disease) of the cubital tunnel. Symptoms include medial elbow pain and paresthesia in ulnar nerve distribution. The musculocutaneous nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral forearm and motor innervation to the corachobracialis, brachialis, and biceps brachii.

98.

A patient is being seen in an acute setting after sustaining injuries from a motor vehicle accident. The initial evaluation reveals that the patient can be roused from sleep only with painful stimuli, and exhibits slow verbal responses.

What level of consciousness is indicated by these responses?

  • Stupor

  • Minimally conscious state

  • Lethargy

  • Obtundation

Correct answer: Stupor

A patient is considered to be in a stupor when they can be roused from sleep only with painful stimuli, return to an unresponsive state when those stimuli are removed, exhibit slow or absent verbal responses, and demonstrate minimal awareness of self and the environment. The levels of consciousness are as follows:

  • Alertness: Patient responds fully and appropriately to stimuli, and can open their eyes and look at the examiner.
  • Lethargy: Patient appears drowsy, can open their eyes and look at the examiner, responds to questions, and falls asleep easily.
  • Obtundation: Patient can open their eyes and look at the examiner but responds slowly, is confused, and exhibits decreased alertness and interest in the environment.
  • Stupor: Patient can be roused from sleep only with painful stimuli, returns to an unresponsive state when those stimuli are removed, exhibits slow or absent verbal responses, and demonstrates minimal awareness of self and the environment.
  • Coma: Patient is unconscious and cannot be roused, keeps eyes closed, and exhibits no response to external stimuli.
  • Unresponsive wakefulness syndrome (vegetative state): Patient has sleep/wake cycles and normalized respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion. Patient can be roused but is unaware of their surroundings.
  • Minimally conscious state (MCS): Patient has severely altered consciousness with minimal but evident awareness of self and/or the environment.

99.

As pathological conditions, how are genu valgum and genu varum classified?

  • Angular

  • Tendon lengthening

  • Torsional

  • Axial

Correct answer: Angular

Genu valgum and genu varum are angular conditions. Genu valgum (knock-knees) is excessive lateral tibial torsion. Gen varum (bowlegs) is excessive medial tibial torsion.

Tendon lengthening conditions include Osgood-Schlatter disease, Sever's disease, and Sinding-Larsen Johannson's disease. Torsional conditions refer to an abnormal gait angle of the foot with respect to a straight line in the direction of walking. Patients with torsional conditions may present as toeing in (pigeon toes) or toeing out (duck feet). "Axial conditions" is not a commonly used term in this context; also, the extremities are part of the appendicular, not axial, skeleton.

100.

A patient demonstrates an extension synergy in the lower extremity. Which of the following is part of the traditional extension synergy?

  • Ankle plantarflexion

  • Ankle eversion

  • Knee flexion

  • External rotation of the hip

Correct answer: Ankle plantarflexion

The lower extremity extension synergy includes hip extension, adduction, and internal rotation; and knee extension, ankle plantarflexion, and ankle inversion.

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