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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 6 of 50

101.

What is a typical characteristic of a diabetic ulcer?

  • No pain

  • Commonly located over the small toes or shin

  • Cool

  • Cyanosis

Correct answer: No pain

Diabetic ulcers are typically painless.

Arterial ulcers—not diabetic ulcers—can occur anywhere in the lower leg, and are most common on the small toes and shins. They are often severely and intermittently painful. They may be pale, cyanotic, or pale on elevation with dusky rubor on dependency. They are cool to the touch.

102.

What is MOST LIKELY indicated by a rubbery end-feel?

  • Muscle spasm

  • Edema

  • Soft tissue fibrosis

  • Soft tissue approximation

Correct answer: Muscle spasm

A rubbery end-feel is pathological and indicates muscle spasm.

A boggy end-feel indicates edema. A firm end-feel with decreased elasticity indicates fibrosis of soft tissues. A soft end-feel is normal for joints with soft tissue approximation.

103.

A PT is assessing a patient's strength through manual muscle testing. When testing the patient's elbow flexor strength, the patient demonstrates the ability to bend the elbow against gravity, but she is unable to maintain flexion when the PT applies any resistance. 

Which of the following grades is MOST appropriate?

  • 3+

  • 4

  • 2

  • Trace

Correct answer: 3+

Grades in the 3/5 range involve motions which cannot be maintained against any resistance apart from that of gravity. A plus or minus can be awarded based on the patient's strength within these parameters.

4/5 means that the patient can hold against gravity with the addition of moderate/minimal resistance. 2/5 means that the patient can only complete the movement in a gravity-eliminated position. Trace strength means that there is only a barely detectable contraction.

104.

When conducting an ankle-brachial index reading on a patient, the therapist determines that the value is 1.2. Which of the following is TRUE about this finding? 

  • Normal reading

  • Borderline PAD

  • Severe PAD

  • Non-compliant arteries

Correct answer: Normal reading

Ankle-brachial index is one test used for peripheral arterial disease (PAD). This test determines the ratio of blood pressure in the lower extremity to that of the upper extremity. When calculated, if the value is above 1.4, the patient may have non-compliant arteries. If it is between 1.0 and 1.4, this is considered normal. If the reading is between .91 and .99, this is considered borderline. If it is below .9, this is indicative of PAD. If it is below .5, this is indicative of severe arterial disease.

105.

A patient has a condition affecting his Achilles tendon. Which of the following would indicate that the patient has tendonitis as opposed to tendinosis?

  • The condition is acute in nature

  • The condition is related to repetitive strain

  • Often takes many months to heal

  • The condition is chronic in nature

Correct answer: The condition is acute in nature

Tendinitis and tendinosis are similar yet distinct conditions affecting the tendons of the body. Tendinitis is acute, and is generally related to sudden, heavy efforts which put excess strain on the tendon. 

Tendinosis is a chronic condition related to overuse, and it may take many months to heal.

106.

A patient's fifth digit on her hand is held in a position of extension of the PIP, flexion of the DIP, and flexion of the MCP. Which of the following is TRUE in this situation?

  • The patient has a swan neck deformity

  • The patient has a boutonniere deformity

  • The patient has a Dupuytren's contracture

  • The patient had a complete tear of the central tendon slip of extensor hood

Correct answer: The patient has a swan neck deformity

A swan neck deformity is an abnormal finger position in which a digit is maintained in MCP flexion, PIP extension, and DIP flexion. 

A Dupuytren's contracture is a thickening of the palmar fascia, causing the fingers to flex at the PIP and MCP, usually affecting the fourth and fifth digits. A boutonniere deformity is the result of a complete tear of the central tendon slip of the extensor hood, leading to MCP extension, PIP flexion, and DIP extension.

107.

The PTA provides summed feedback to a patient who is learning a motor skill of tying their shoe. Which of the following is an example of summed feedback?

  • After the patient tries unsuccessfully to tie their shoe three times, the PTA provides feedback

  • After the patient has completed the task successfully, the PTA provides feedback

  • The PTA gives more feedback at the start, then gives less feedback as time goes by

  • The PTA only provides feedback if the patient starts failing the task

Correct answer: After the patient tries unsuccessfully to tie their shoe three times, the PTA provides feedback

Summed feedback is provided after the patient has tried the task in question a few times.

Terminal feedback refers to providing feedback after successful completion. Fading refers to a high frequency of feedback early on, with less as time goes by. Bandwidth refers to providing feedback when the patient begins to fail the task.

108.

 A PTA is working with a patient with ALS. Which of the following is NOT true of this condition?

  • Levodopa is commonly prescribed to help with symptoms

  • Both upper motor and lower motor lesion signs are present

  • Respirators are eventually required

  • Cognition is unaffected

Correct answer: Levodopa is commonly prescribed to help with symptoms

Levodopa is commonly used to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. There is no known cure or medication to treat ALS, but only supportive medications and therapies. 

109.

A PT is testing a patient's coordination through a battery of tests. Which of the following brain areas is MOST associated with coordination?

  • Cerebellum

  • Pons

  • Limbic system

  • Parietal lobe

Correct answer: Cerebellum

The cerebellum is involved with coordination throughout the body. Cerebellar strokes often result in severe coordination issues, such as ataxic gait.

The pons is involved with modulating pain and modifying arousal. The limbic system is involved with emotions and memory. The parietal lobe is involved with sensation.

110.

A PTA is performing grade I Maitland joint mobilizations on a patient's shoulder. Which of the following BEST describes this treatment?

  • Limited oscillations at the start of the range of motion

  • Low-amplitude translation at the joint without applying tension to joint

  • High-amplitude oscillations within the resistance of the joint tissue

  • Low-amplitude, high-velocity thrust through the end of the passive ROM

Correct answer: Limited oscillations at the start of the range of motion

Maitland and Kaltenborn mobilizations are two of the most popular choices for increasing joint play. Maitland mobilizations involve oscillations, while Kaltenborn mobilizations involve a held position. Grade one Maitlands are limited oscillations at the start of the range of motion.

Grade two Maitland oscillations are high-amplitude oscillations within the resistance of the joint tissue. Grade IV Maitlands are low-amplitude, high-velocity thrust through the end of the passive ROM. Low-amplitude translation at the joint without applying tension to joint is a Kaltenborn grade one.

111.

A 20-year-old patient demonstrates atraumatic instability of the glenohumeral joint. Which of the following would likely be seen in this patient?

  • A positive apprehension test

  • Full strength in shoulder muscles

  • A history of overhead sports

  • Silent joint motion through all planes of the shoulder

Correct answer: A positive apprehension test

The apprehension test is a physical test which puts the patient's shoulder in a vulnerable position. 

Atraumatic instability is caused by defects in the shoulder joint which are not related to trauma or overuse, such as would be seen in an overhead athlete. Patients with atraumatic instability often have weak shoulder muscles due to guarding and apprehension, which further contributes to the instability. Unstable shoulders will often pop and click throughout the range of motion.

112.

A physical therapist is working with a patient who demonstrates signs and symptoms of a complex nerve injury. Which type of peripheral nerve injury involves two or more nerves without a clear pattern of polyneuropathy?

  • Mononeuropathy multiplex

  • Plexopathy

  • Radiculopathy

  • Bilateral mononeuropathy

Correct answer: Mononeuropathy multiplex

Mononeuropathy multiplex is a peripheral nerve injury involving two or more nerves without a clear pattern of polyneuropathy. For example, a patient with mononeuropathy multiplex might present with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, left cubital tunnel syndrome, and right tarsal tunnel syndrome. 

Plexopathy is a peripheral nerve injury with the involvement of the brachial or lumbosacral plexus. Radiculopathy is a peripheral nerve injury that involves the nerve root(s). "Bilateral mononeuropathy" is not a commonly used term.

113.

A male patient’s blood pressure is 140/70 mmHg. Which of the following is TRUE?

  • This patient is hypertensive because of the systolic reading

  • This patient is not considered hypertensive because males have higher cutoffs

  • This patient is normotensive because his low diastolic pressure balances out his higher systolic pressure

  • This patient is hypotensive

Correct answer: This patient is hypertensive because of the systolic reading

If a person has a high systolic, diastolic, or both blood pressures, they are considered hypertensive. Males and females have the same blood pressure cutoffs. The cutoffs are as follows:

  • < 120 systolic and < 80 diastolic = normal
  • 120-129 systolic and < 80 diastolic = elevated
  • 130-139 systolic and or 80-89 diastolic = stage I hypertension
  • > 139 and or > 89 = stage II hypertension

114.

A patient arrives for his PT appointment limping. He reports that he fell at home before coming and landed on his knee. He is 50 years old, has tenderness on the fibular head, is able to flex his knee to 100 degrees, and has no tenderness on his patella. 

Which of the following actions should the PT take?

  • Refer the patient for imaging

  • Apply ice to the patient's knee and elevate the injured extremity

  • Ask the patient to perform squats and calf raises to assess functional ability

  • Apply heat to the patient's knee

Correct answer: Refer the patient for imaging

The Ottowa Knee Rules were created to streamline care and to ensure that patients who need imaging get imaging and those who don't do not. The Ottowa Knee Rules state that if someone has any of the following after a knee injury, they should be referred for imaging:

  • Older than 54
  • Isolated patellar tenderness
  • Fibular head tenderness
  • Unable to flex knee past 90 degrees
  • Inability to weight bear for 3 steps

Since the patient has fibular head tenderness, they should be referred for imaging.

115.

A PT elects to utilize cryotherapy for a patient. Which of the following is INCREASED by general cold applications?

  • Blood flow to internal organs

  • Pulse rate

  • Respiratory rate

  • Venous blood pressure

Correct answer: Blood flow to internal organs

Cryotherapy (cold therapy) may be used to treat a number of applications. General cold applications, or large surface area cold applications, have certain specific effects on the body. Specifically, these interventions increase blood flow to internal organs, cardiac output, stroke volume, and arterial blood pressure. They decrease metabolic rate, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and venous blood pressure. 

116.

A PTA is working with a patient who suffered a spinal cord injury. Which of the following symptoms is considered a red flag?

  • Autonomic hyperreflexia

  • Spasticity

  • Heterotopic bone formation

  • Spinal shock

Correct answer: Autonomic hyperreflexia

Autonomic hyperreflexia or hyporeflexia, which both fall under the umbrella of dysreflexia, are emergency situations where a patient with a spinal cord injury encounters a stimulus which drastically affects their autonomic system. Generally, this is due to an issue with a catheter. 

Spasticity, heterotopic bone formation, and spinal shock all bear close monitoring but are not medical emergencies or red flags. 

117.

After stroke, patients generally experience six sequential stages of recovery. Which of the following options occurs during stage 3?

  • Voluntary synergistic movement

  • Emergence of spasticity

  • Decline of spasticity

  • Flaccidity

Correct answer: Voluntary synergistic movement

During stage 3 of stroke recovery, patients exhibit voluntary movement, but only in synergistic patterns. The stages of stroke recovery are characterized as follows: 

  • Stage 1: Initial flaccidity with no voluntary movement
  • Stage 2: Emergence of spasticity, hyperreflexia, synergies
  • Stage 3: Voluntary movement possible, but only in synergies, strong spasticity
  • Stage 4: Voluntary control in isolated joint movements emerging, decline of spasticity and synergies
  • Stage 5: Increasing voluntary control out of synergy, coordination deficits still present
  • Stage 6: Control and coordination near normal

118.

A patient is referred for physical therapy to treat low back pain due to disc herniation. Upon reviewing the patient's medications, the therapist sees he is taking an ACE inhibitor. Because he is taking an ACE inhibitor, which of the following medical conditions would you MOST expect this patient to have?

  • Hypertension

  • Diabetes

  • Atrial fibrillation

  • Congestive heart failure

Correct answer: Hypertension

ACE inhibitors work to decrease blood pressure (hypertension). Some of the most common ACE inhibitors are enalapril, ramipril, catapril, and lisinopril.

Medications to reduce blood sugar, such as insulin, would be prescribed for diabetes. Diuretics are common medications for congestive heart failure. Antiarrhythmics are used to control heart conductivity for atrial fibrillation.

119.

The PT wants to perform a test of ligament stability in the elbow of a patient. Which of the following tests will accomplish this goal?

  • Valgus stress test

  • Adson's test

  • Drop arm test

  • Yergason's test

Correct answer: Valgus stress test

One of the main ways to test ligament integrity at the elbow is the valgus/varus stress test. These tests measure the lateral and medial stability of the elbow joint and can help to guide treatment strategies.

Adson's test is for thoracic outlet syndrome. Drop arm test is for rotator cuff involvement. Yergason's test is for proximal biceps and labral involvement at the shoulder.

120.

A patient who recently suffered a CVA presents with symptoms on both the right and left sides of the body. She has diplopia, dysphagia, and vertigo. She also has ataxia, balance impairment, and nystagmus.

Given these symptoms, which CVA syndrome is she MOST LIKELY to have?

  • Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome

  • Anterior cerebral artery syndrome

  • Posterior cerebral artery syndrome

  • Middle cerebral artery syndrome

Correct answer: Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome

The vertebrobasilar artery supplies the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. Patients with vertebrobasilar artery syndrome have a wide variety of symptoms that can be on the same side or opposite side of the infarct. There is cranial nerve involvement (diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, deafness, and vertigo) as well as ataxia. They may have Wallenberg's syndrome (deficits in visual disturbances, balance, and gait deficits) or locked-in syndrome (the patient is awake and aware but unable to speak or control any muscles beyond the eyes).

The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial part of the frontal and parietal lobe, basal ganglia, and corpus callosum. Patients with anterior cerebral artery syndrome have contralateral sensory and motor loss with legs more affected than the upper extremities. They have mental impairment, urinary incontinence, apraxia, slow delayed movement, and behavioral changes. 

The middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cerebral hemispheres, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Patients with middle cerebral artery syndrome have contralateral sensory motor loss with the face and upper extremities affected more than the lower extremities. Additionally, they can have perceptual deficits, homonymous hemianopsia, Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia, and global aphasia.

The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe, medial and inferior temporal lobe, thalamus, and midbrain. With posterior cerebral artery syndrome, the patient can experience contralateral sensory and motor loss, homonymous hemianopsia, visual agnosia, oculomotor nerve palsy, involuntary movement, Pusher syndrome, and thalamic pain syndrome.

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