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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 7 of 50

121.

Which pulmonary condition is characterized by alveolar collapse in an infant resulting from lung immaturity and low levels of pulmonary surfactant?

  • Respiratory distress syndrome

  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

  • Bronchiectasis

  • Cystic fibrosis

Correct answer: Respiratory distress syndrome

Respiratory distress syndrome is a condition of alveolar collapse in a premature infant. It is a result of lung immaturity and inadequate levels of pulmonary surfactant. Physical findings generally occur within a few hours of birth.

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is an obstructive pulmonary disease and is often a sequela of premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome who were given high pressures of mechanical ventilation or infection. Bronchiectasis is a chronic congenital or acquired disease characterized by abnormal dilation of the bronchi and excessive sputum production. Cystic fibrosis is a genetically inherited disease that affects the mucus-producing glands of the lungs, sweat glands, digestive tract, and genitourinary system. 

122.

A physical therapist performs an evaluation for a 70-year-old woman who endured a stroke. According to the patient's records, she has Wallenberg's syndrome. What characterizes Wallenberg's syndrome?

  • Occlusion of the vertebral, posterior inferior cerebellar, or basilar artery

  • Occlusion of the lower vertebral anterior branch of the lower basilar artery

  • Occlusion of the basilar artery at the level of the pons

  • Occlusion of the paramedian branch of the basilar artery

Correct answer: Occlusion of the vertebral, posterior inferior cerebellar, or basilar artery

Wallenberg's syndrome, or lateral medullary syndrome, is the occlusion of the vertebral, posterior inferior cerebellar, or basilar artery.

Medial medullary syndrome is the occlusion of the lower vertebral anterior branch of the lower basilar artery. Locked-in syndrome is a basilar artery syndrome and is the occlusion of the basilar artery at the level of the pons. Medial inferior pontine syndrome is the occlusion of the paramedian branch of the basilar artery.

123.

Because of the property of buoyancy, which direction of movement offers the MOST resistance when a patient moves their immersed arm through water?

  • Downward

  • Horizontal

  • Upward

  • Away from the trunk

Correct answer: Downward

Buoyancy refers to the upward movement of water, which results in an apparent decrease in weight of the body part immersed in the water. Movement of the arm horizontal to or upward toward the water surface is therefore made easier due to the water's buoyancy. Movement downward into the water is more difficult because of the increased resistance as the body part resists the buoyancy of the water.

124.

A PTA is teaching a patient who recently had a brain injury how to transfer from one chair to another. As part of the education, she teaches the patient about the head-hips relationship. 

Which of the following BEST describes this relationship?

  • When the head goes in one direction, the hips naturally go in the other direction

  • The head and hips go in the same direction during a transfer: toward the destination

  • The head and hips go in the same direction during a transfer: away from the destination

  • When the head goes backward (extension), the hips can then more easily shift laterally

Correct answer: When the head goes in one direction, the hips naturally go in the other direction

The head-hips relationship is a useful transfer technique. By understanding that the head and hips will go in opposite directions for a transfer, patients can more easily change positions and surfaces without having to use too much musculature.

125.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a degenerative disease of the central nervous system. Approximately what percentage of cases are genetic?

  • 5-10%

  • 15-20%

  • 10-15%

  • 25-30%

Correct answer: 5-10%

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a degenerative disease of the central nervous system. Approximately 5-10% of cases are genetic. The remaining cases stem from unknown etiology. 

ALS is a progressive disease of the upper and lower motor neurons and is characterized by muscle fiber atrophy from peripheral nerve involvement. Death typically occurs anywhere from 2-5 years after onset due to respiratory compromise. The role of physical therapy for ALS patients is to maintain functional independence for as long as possible and to enhance patients' quality of life.

126.

A patient is four weeks postoperative from a cementless total knee replacement. What is the highest ROM the physical therapist can reasonably expect for this patient to achieve at this stage?

  • 120 degrees

  • 90 degrees

  • 100 degrees

  • 180 degrees

Correct answer: 120 degrees

Following a cemented or cementless total knee replacement, the physical therapist can expect the patient to achieve 0-90 degrees ROM within two weeks, and 0-120 degrees ROM within 3-4 weeks.

127.

Which strategy for therapeutic intervention is LEAST appropriate for an individual with a right hemisphere injury?

  • Develop a communication plan consisting of gestures

  • Give frequent feedback

  • Do not overestimate one's ability to learn

  • Avoid environmental clutter

Correct answer: Develop a communication plan consisting of gestures

For a patient with a right hemisphere injury, it is appropriate to use verbal cues. Demonstrations and gestures may be confusing with the presence of visual-perceptual deficits.

For a right hemisphere injury, appropriate strategies for intervention include using verbal cues, focusing on slowing down and controlling movements, focusing on safety, avoiding environmental clutter, and giving frequent feedback and support, as well as not overestimating the patient's ability to learn.

128.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of viral pneumonia?

  • It is an interstitial or intra-alveolar inflammatory process.

  • It is a form of bacterial pneumonia.

  • It is also called streptococcal pneumonia.

  • It is the most common type of pneumonia.

Correct answer: It is an interstitial or intra-alveolar inflammatory process.

Viral pneumonia may be an interstitial or intra-alveolar inflammatory process caused by viral agents. It is most common for viral pneumonia to be caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

Pneumococcal pneumonia, on the other hand, is a form of bacterial pneumonia. As such, it is an intra-alveolar infection and not an interstitial infection. It may also be called streptococcal pneumonia, and it is the most common type of this disease.

129.

Which form of resistance exercise uses dynamic muscle contraction that is SPEED CONTROLLED, with variable and accommodating resistance?

  • Isokinetic

  • Isometric

  • Eccentric

  • Isotonic

Correct answer: Isokinetic

Isokinetic resistance exercise is dynamic and has speed control for muscle shortening and lengthening; resistance is accommodating and variable. It provides peak torque, and maximum resistance at all points of range of motion.

Isometric resistance exercise is performed as a static muscle contraction with no muscle length change. This is beneficial to strengthen a muscle at a specific point in the ROM (range of motion). Eccentric resistance exercise is performed with dynamic lengthening contraction. This is useful to prepare muscles for functional activities and for muscles unable to perform concentric contractions. Isotonic exercises use dynamic muscle contractions; these muscle contractions may be eccentric or concentric.

Isotonic can be thought of as "same load."

Isometric can be thought of as "same angle."

Isokinetic can be thought of as "same speed."

130.

A patient is being examined for Tic Douloureux. Which of the following cranial nerves is involved with this diagnosis?

  • Cranial nerve V

  • Cranial nerve III

  • Cranial nerve I

  • Cranial nerve X

Correct answer: Cranial nerve V

Cranial nerve V, the trigeminal nerve, is responsible for facial sensation, amongst other functions. Tic Douloureux, or trigeminal neuralgia, affects this nerve. 

Cranial nerve III is responsible for eye motion. Cranial nerve I is responsible for sense of smell. Cranial nerve X is the vagus nerve, which is involved with a variety of functions in visceral organs.

131.

In the acute phase of a musculoskeletal condition, which of the following interventions is LEAST appropriate?

  • Stretching of involved tissues

  • Compression of the involved tissues

  • Assisted movement of injured tissues

  • Grade I and II joint oscillations

Correct answer: Stretching of involved tissues 

Patients in the acute phase of a musculoskeletal condition often have pain at rest and inflammation. Therefore, stretching the involved tissue is contraindicated due to the weakness of the newly formed tissue. However, RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) should be utilized. 

Nonthermal modalities including rest, relaxation, and soft tissue massage may also be indicated. Joint oscillations (grade I and II) are indicated for pain relief. Assisted movement of injured structures will protect the soft tissue.

132.

Which cellular process might stroke (CVA) patients experience, and what does it result in?

  • Secondary cell death; apoptosis

  • Secondary cell death; necrosis

  • Cerebral anoxia; elevated intracranial pressures

  • Cerebral anoxia; immediate irreversible cellular damage

Correct answer: Secondary cell death; apoptosis

Stroke (CVA) patients may experience secondary cell death, which is a process that results in apoptosis. Secondary cell death occurs when neurons surrounding the original area of damage die off.

Necrosis is uncontrolled cell death caused directly by CVA or other injury. Necrotic cells release electrolytes and neurotransmitters that cause an intracellular imbalance. The surrounding cells may undergo programmed cell death, or apoptosis, due to that imbalance. Cerebral edema, not cerebral anoxia, elevates intracranial pressures. Cerebral anoxia causes irreversible brain damage after 4-6 minutes, not immediately.

133.

A PTA is testing a patient's reflexes in the lower extremity. After not getting a response on the first two trials, the PTA has the patient perform the Jendrassik maneuver. Which of the following BEST describes this maneuver?

  • Patient links fingers together and pulls hands from one another

  • Patient performs a partial situp during test

  • Patient is positioned in prone

  • Patient raises hands above head actively

Correct answer: Patient links fingers together and pulls hands from one another

The Jendrassik maneuver is used to increase sensitivity of the reflexes in the lower extremities by contracting the upper extremities. The patient is asked to link the fingers together and pull apart with force. During this time, the clinician tests the patient's lower body reflexes.

134.

The stomach is part of which of the following body systems?

  • Upper gastrointestinal tract

  • Middle gastrointestinal tract

  • Lower gastrointestinal tract

  • Central gastrointestinal tract

Correct answer: Upper gastrointestinal tract

The stomach is part of the upper gastrointestinal tract, along with the mouth and the esophagus.

The small intestine, including the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, makes up the middle gastrointestinal tract. The lower gastrointestinal tract is made up of the large intestine, which includes the cecum, colon, and rectum. "Central gastrointestinal tract" is not a commonly used term.

135.

Which of the following is NOT a common reason for denial of reimbursement from an insurance company?

  • Patient is improving symptoms too quickly

  • Patient has not shown progress

  • PT used incorrect codes

  • Medically unnecessary treatments

Correct answer: Patient is improving symptoms too quickly

Often, insurers will deny reimbursement if the PT does not demonstrate medical necessity, if the patient doesn't improve, or if the codes were incorrect on the documentation.

Improving quickly is a plus that payers appreciate.

136.

A PT decides to include electrotherapy as part of a patient's plan of care. When applying electrodes to a patient, how large should the space between the active and dispersive electrodes be?

  • No less than the diameter of the electrodes being used

  • At least twice the diameter of the active electrode

  • They should always be one inch apart

  • Half the diameter of the active electrode

Correct answer: No less than the diameter of the electrodes being used

When performing electrical stimulation (ES), the electrodes should be placed so that the space between the active and dispersive electrodes is at least the diameter of the electrodes being used. The further apart the electrodes are placed, the lesser the density of the electrical current in the superficial tissue. This reduces the risk of burns and skin irritations. However, electrodes should be moved closer together if undesired structures may be affected by ES.

137.

A physical therapist assistant is treating a 42-year-old patient with a suspected shoulder pathology. The patient presents with pain and weakness with resisted isometric lateral rotation. Upon palpation, the PTA finds that there is tenderness along the length of the supraspinatus.

Which condition is LIKELY?

  • Rotator cuff lesion

  • Frozen shoulder

  • Atraumatic instability

  • Cervical spondylosis

Correct answer: Rotator cuff lesion

This patient's symptoms are consistent with rotator cuff lesions. These lesions generally occur in patients aged 30-50. They present with pain and weakness with abduction and resisted isometric lateral rotation, along with tenderness over the rotator cuff upon palpation.

Frozen shoulder normally appears in patients over the age of 45, with restricted ROM (range of movement) and shoulder hiking, but no pain upon resisted isometric movement. Atraumatic instability appears in patients aged 10-35, with no pain upon resisted isometric movement, but pain and instability with activity. Cervical spondylosis appears in patients 50+ years of age with limited ROM and tenderness over the affected vertebra or facet.

138.

Which of the following is a pure sensory nerve?

  • Cranial nerve II

  • Cranial nerve III

  • Cranial nerve XI

  • Cranial nerve VII 

Correct answer: Cranial nerve II

Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve. It is a pure sensory nerve, carrying sensations of vision.

Cranial nerve III is the oculomotor nerve. It is a pure motor nerve, and controls pupillary reflexes. Cranial nerve XI  is the accessory nerve. It is a pure motor nerve, and innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Cranial nerve VII is the facial nerve. It is a mixed motor and sensory nerve which is responsible for some aspects of facial expression and taste.

139.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is designed to protect patient privacy. Based on these regulations, which of the following is TRUE?

  • Emails with sensitive information must be password-protected

  • Faxes should never be used to share medical records

  • Confidentiality rules apply to written records, not spoken conversations

  • Treatment may only be provided to one person at a time, and never to groups of patients

Correct answer: Emails with sensitive information must be password-protected

In order to comply with HIPAA regulations, all emails should be password-protected. As long as this precaution is taken, it is acceptable to communicate sensitive information via email.

Faxes may be used to share sensitive information, but must be sent with cover sheets. Treatment may be provided to groups, provided that any discussion about that treatment occurs privately and quietly. Confidentiality applies to written, electronic, and oral communications.

140.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute coronary artery syndrome. Which of the following presentations of this condition is MOST likely to cause edema?

  • Heart failure

  • Angina pectoris

  • Myocardial infarction

  • Cerebrovascular accident

Correct answer: Heart failure

Acute coronary artery syndrome has three main presentations: heart failure, where the heart is unable to keep up with circulation of the body as needed, thus leading to edema; angina pectoris, or chest pain; and myocardial infarction (heart attack). 

A cerebrovascular accident is not included with acute coronary artery syndrome.

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