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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

Page 8 of 50

141.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Based on the patient’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test, which of the following should the PT conclude?

  • The patient has a normal clotting ability

  • The patient may have a factor VIII deficiency

  • The patient may have a factor IX deficiency

  • The patient may have a factor X deficiency

Correct answer: The patient has a normal clotting ability

The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is used to determine clotting ability. If the patient's blood takes 25 to 40 seconds to clot, the test is considered normal. 

Higher times indicate a potential deficiency in factor X, IX, or VIII.

142.

Which form of resistance exercise uses dynamic muscle lengthening and provides shock absorption?

  • Eccentric

  • Isotonic

  • Open-chain

  • Isokinetic

Correct answer: Eccentric

Eccentric resistance exercise is performed with dynamic lengthening, and provides shock absorption during closed-chain functional activities. These contractions consume less oxygen than concentric contractions against similar loads.

Isotonic exercises use dynamic muscle contractions; these muscle contractions may be eccentric or concentric or both. Open-chain exercise occurs when the distal segment (hand or foot) moves freely in space, as seen with lifting hand weights. Isokinetic resistance exercise is dynamic and has a speed control for muscle shortening and lengthening.

143.

A PTA is helping a patient work on strengthening his affected shoulder after a stroke. Which of the following should the PTA help the patient do first before having the patient perform any GH movement?

  • Mobilize the scapula

  • Slightly flex the spine

  • Tuck the chin

  • Lie down in supine

Correct answer: Mobilize the scapula

The shoulder is a complex joint which requires mobility from both the scapulothoracic joint and the GH joint. Before moving the GH joint, the ST joint must be mobilized. 

There is no reason that the patient has to lie down, flex the spine, or tuck the chin before beginning this movement, absent some other complicating factor.

144.

A patient with a complete spinal cord injury is participating in transfer training. She is working on becoming independent with slide board transfers. Which is the highest level of spinal cord injury in which a patient should expect to be independent with slide board transfers?

  • C6

  • C5

  • T2

  • C3

Correct answer: C6

Patients with complete spinal cord injuries at C6 can learn to transfer independently with a sliding board, at least with regard to even surfaces. Injuries below this level, such as T2, can also perform these transfers independently. Injuries above this level, such as C5 and C3, will likely need to use different techniques.

145.

Different types of catheters serve different purposes. Which catheter is MOST appropriate for a patient whose oxyhemoglobin saturation needs to be monitored?

  • Swan-Ganz catheter

  • Foley catheter

  • Chest tube

  • Intravenous catheter

Correct answer: Swan-Ganz catheter

Swan-Ganz catheters or pulmonary artery catheters can monitor a patient's oxyhemoglobin saturation, cardiac output, or pulmonary artery pressure.

A Foley catheter is inserted into the bladder for urine retention, incontinence, spinal cord trauma, imaging, or surgery. Chest tubes are surgically inserted into the chest wall to evacuate air, blood, fluid, or other material from the body. Intravenous catheters, or IVs, provide the short-term infusion of fluids.

146.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of a single axis foot prosthesis?

  • Promotes knee stability in the stance phase

  • Uses movement to conform to uneven surfaces

  • Heavier than other devices

  • Has poor shock absorption

Correct answer: Promotes knee stability in the stance phase

There are several types of foot prostheses. The single axis foot prosthesis produces motion controlled by anterior and posterior rubber bumpers that limit dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Because it permits only sagittal plane motion, its stability promotes knee stability in the stance phase of gait.

A multi-axis foot prosthesis uses movement to conform to uneven surfaces. It is rarely used due to the heavy weight of the device, and it has poor shock absorption. 

147.

A patient arrives at the clinic with a noted hand deformity. If the median nerve is affected, which of the following deformities is the patient MOST likely to exhibit? 

  • Ape hand deformity

  • Boutonniere deformity

  • Swan neck deformity

  • Mallet finger

Correct answer: Ape hand deformity

An ape hand deformity results from median nerve dysfunction. In this condition, the first digit moves distally until it is in line with the second digit, resulting in an inability to abduct the thumb. Physical therapy interventions include flexibility and functional strengthening exercises.

A mallet finger deformity results from damage of the extensor tendon where it inserts into the distal phalanx of a digit. A swan neck deformity results from contracture of intrinsic muscles with dorsal subluxation of lateral extensor tendons. A boutonnière deformity results from flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint.

148.

Which statement is TRUE of disinfectants?

  • All disinfectants require EPA approval.

  • All disinfectants require FDA approval.

  • Disinfectants are regulated by individual states.

  • Disinfectants are not regulated, which has led to numerous lawsuits and health issues.

Correct answer: All disinfectants require EPA approval.

It is true that all disinfectants require EPA approval. This includes hydrogen peroxide, isopropyl and ethyl alcohols, chlorine and chlorine compounds, formaldehyde, glutaraldehydes, and others.

149.

Where should the therapist position their hands when instructing a patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing?

  • Over the subcostal angle of the thorax

  • Over the lateral chest wall bilaterally

  • Over the sternum

  • Over the posterior aspect of the thoracic ribs

Correct answer: Over the subcostal angle of the thorax

Diaphragmatic breathing is used to increase ventilation and improve gas exchange, as well as to promote relaxation and decrease the work of breathing. The patient may be semi-reclined, supine, or sitting while the therapist's hands are placed over the subcostal angle of the thorax. The therapist applies gentle pressure through exhalation, increasing to firm pressure at the end of exhalation, and releasing pressure during inhalation.

The therapist's hands over the lateral chest wall bilaterally, over the sternum, or over the posterior aspect of the thoracic ribs do not facilitate diaphragmatic breathing.

150.

There are subtle differences in the modalities and treatment techniques used for incontinence and pelvic floor PT. Specifically, which physical therapy intervention for urinary incontinence aims to reeducate pelvic floor muscles for patients who cannot initiate active contractions?

  • Functional electrical stimulation

  • Biofeedback

  • Progressive strengthening

  • Behavioral training

Correct answer: Functional electrical stimulation

Urinary incontinence is a common disorder, often resulting from both acute and persistent causes. Functional electrical stimulation is used for muscle reeducation if a patient is unable to initiate active contractions in the pelvic floor.

Biofeedback uses pressure recordings to reinforce active contractions and relax the bladder. Progressive strengthening uses weighted vaginal cones for home exercises to increase the strength of the pubococcygeus muscles. Behavioral training includes record-keeping of voiding and education for lifestyle changes to avoid the Valsalva maneuver and heavy resistance exercises.

151.

Which property of water describes the tendency of water molecules to adhere to each other, causing resistance when a body part moves through them?

  • Cohesion

  • Buoyancy

  • Hydrostatic pressure

  • Density

Correct answer: Cohesion

Cohesion is the tendency of water molecules to adhere to each other, and causes a feeling of resistance when moving through water. In order to separate the water molecules, the patient must exert force. This creates resistance, making it useful for exercise.

Buoyancy is helpful in that it creates an apparent decrease in body weight and joint unloading due to the upward force of water on the immersed body part(s). This decrease in body weight is equal to the weight of the water that it displaces. Hydrostatic pressure is the circumferential water pressure exerted on an immersed body or body part, which reduces edema and enhances peripheral circulation. Density is the mass per unit volume of a substance; the density of water is proportional to its depth, because deeper water must support the water above it.

152.

Which of the following is an example of a CLOSED-CHAIN exercise?

  • Push-ups on gymnastics rings

  • Bicep curl with hand weight

  • Shoulder press standing on BOSU ball 

  • Medicine ball throws 

Correct answer: Push-ups on gymnastics rings

Push-ups are a closed-chain exercise, as the body is moving over a fixed distal segment. In this case, the body is lowered and the hands are fixed to the gymnastics rings, which can wobble, but do not move as part of the exercise.

Bicep curls, shoulder press on BOSU ball, and medicine ball throws are all open-chain exercises. An open-chain exercise is one in which the distal segment (hand or foot) moves freely in space.

153.

According to a patient's medical history, he recently suffered a full thickness, third-degree burn to his right lower leg in a work-related injury. Which of the following might the therapist expect based on this description?

  • White, gray, or black appearance, dry surface, edema, eschar, and little pain

  • Blisters, inflammation, and pain

  • Red or white appearance, edema, and broken blisters

  • Blisters, edema, and moderate pain

Correct answer: White, gray, or black appearance, dry surface, edema, eschar and little pain

A full thickness (third-degree) burn affects the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by a white, gray, or black appearance, dry surface, edema, eschar, and little pain due to destroyed nerve endings. Healing requires removal of eschar and grafting. The various types of burns are classified as follows, based on the depth and severity of the injury:

  • An epidermal (first-degree) burn is a burn that only damages the epidermal skin layer, leaving a pink/red appearance but no blistering.
  • A superficial partial-thickness (second-degree) burn is a burn that damages the epidermis and the upper layers of the dermis skin layer. These injuries are painful and appear bright pink or red with weeping blisters on a moist surface.
  • A deep partial-thickness (second-degree) burn is a burn that severely damages the epidermis and dermis, and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings. These burns present with a mixed red or waxy white appearance, broken blisters, and marked edema. They are sensitive to pressure but insensitive to light touch.
  • A full-thickness (third-degree) burn is a burn that completely destroys the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissues, and sometimes muscle. Full-thickness burns present as white, charred, tan, or black. These injuries are characterized by a dry, parchment-like surface and little pain due to destroyed nerve endings.
  • A subdermal (fourth-degree) burn is a burn that completely destroys the epidermis and dermis skin layer and damages subcutaneous tissues and muscle. These burns have a charred appearance, and may lead to necrosis.

There is not a type of burn that is white in appearance with blisters, edema, and moderate pain. 

154.

Which of the following is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled?

  • Residual volume

  • Inspiratory reserve volume

  • Vital capacity

  • Functional residual capacity

Correct answer: Residual volume

Residual volume is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled. Residual volume is a useful way of measuring how well the lungs are functioning overall.

Inspiratory reserve volume is the volume of gas that can be inhaled beyond a normal resting tidal exhalation. Vital capacity is the amount of air under volitional control (inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume). Functional residual capacity is the amount of air that resides in the lungs after a normal resting tidal exhalation (expiratory reserve volume + residual volume).

155.

A patient has sustained a subdermal burn. What skin and/or tissue layers are affected?

  • Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle

  • Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

  • Epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, hair follicles, sweat glands

  • Epidermis and upper layers of the dermis

Correct answer: Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone

In a fourth-degree, subdermal burn wound, the layers affected include the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone. This type of burn requires extensive surgery and sometimes amputation. The various types of burns are classified as follows, based on the depth and severity of the injury:

  • An epidermal (first-degree) burn is a burn that only damages the epidermal skin layer, leaving a pink/red appearance but no blistering.
  • A superficial partial-thickness (second-degree) burn is a burn that damages the epidermis and the upper layers of the dermis skin layer.
  • A deep partial-thickness (second-degree) burn is a burn that severely damages the epidermis and dermis, and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.
  • A full-thickness (third-degree) burn is a burn that completely destroys the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissues, and sometimes muscle.
  • A subdermal (fourth-degree) burn is a burn that completely destroys the epidermis and dermis skin layer and damages subcutaneous tissues and muscle.

156.

The PTA is treating a patient with moderate burn wounds. Of the following options, which patient falls into this category?

  • A 35-year-old patient with mixed partial/full-thickness burns covering 20% of the body, located on the abdomen and anterior torso

  • A 27-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn covering 25% of the body, located on the lower extremity and foot

  • A six-year-old patient with a full-thickness burn covering 1% of the body, located on the shoulder

  • A 75-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn covering 20% of the body, located on the back

Correct answer: A 35-year-old patient with mixed partial/full-thickness burns covering 20% of the body, located on the abdomen and anterior torso

A 35-year-old patient with mixed partial/full-thickness burn covering 20% of the body, located on the abdomen and anterior torso, is classified as having a moderate burn. The severity of burn injuries is classified as follows: 

  • Minor:
    • Children or older adults with full-thickness burns covering < 2% of the body or partial-thickness burns covering < 10% of the body
    • Adults with partial-thickness burns covering < 15% of the body
    • Burns cannot involve face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints
  • Moderate:
    • Children or older adults with full-thickness burns covering < 10% of the body or partial-thickness burns covering 10%-20% of the body
    • Adults with mixed partial/full-thickness burns covering < 15%-25% of the body
    • Burns cannot involve face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints
  • Critical:
    • Children or older adults with full-thickness burns covering > 10% of the body or partial-thickness burns covering 20% or more of the body
    • Any patient with burns covering > 25% of the body; any patient with burns to the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints
    • Patients with impairments
    • Patients with respiratory complications

A 27-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn covering 25% of the body, located on the lower extremity and foot, and a 75-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn covering 20% of the body, located on the back have critical burn injuries. A six-year-old patient with a full-thickness burn covering 1% of the body, located on the shoulder has moderate burn injuries.

157.

Pelvic floor weakness due to pregnancy and childbirth can lead to organ prolapse. Which of the following is the term for a herniation of the bladder into the vagina?

  • Cystocele

  • Rectocele

  • Uterine prolapse

  • Pelvic Inflammatory Disease 

Correct answer: Cystocele

Weakness and laxity in the pubococcygeal muscles from pregnancy, childbirth, and aging can lead to partial or total organ prolapse. A cystocele is the herniation of the bladder into the vagina.

A rectocele is the herniation of the rectum into the vagina. A uterine prolapse is the bulging of the uterus into the vagina. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an inflammation of the upper reproductive tract, involving the uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries.

158.

Which of the following patients is a likely candidate for coverage by Medicare?

  • A 35-year-old patient who underwent a hip disarticulation due to a car accident, and now requires the use of a wheelchair

  • A 60-year-old patient in hospice care with terminal cancer

  • A 59-year-old patient with osteoporosis

  • A 45-year-old patient who has been unemployed and without any other income for over a year

Correct answer: A 35-year-old patient who underwent a hip disarticulation due to a car accident, and now requires the use of a wheelchair

The 35-year-old patient who underwent a hip disarticulation due to a car accident, and now requires the use of a wheelchair is considered disabled, and is therefore eligible for Medicare. 

Medicare is available for patients who are 65+ years of age, are disabled, or have end-stage renal disease. With only the information provided, neither a 60-year-old patient in hospice care nor a 59-year-old patient with osteoporosis are candidates for Medicare. A 45-year-old patient who is unemployed is a likely candidate for Medicaid, not Medicare.

159.

A PT has a box filled with many different blocks, all of which are the same size except for one. The patient is instructed to find the differently-sized block and take it out of the pile. This is a test for which of the following?

  • Form constancy

  • Figure-ground discrimination

  • Topographical orientation

  • Depth perception

Correct answer: Form constancy

There are many different components of spatial relations. If a patient has a spatial relations syndrome, they may have difficulty with the situation outlined in the question. The ability to select a differently-sized object compared to similarly-shaped objects is called form constancy.

Figure-ground discrimination is the ability to pick out a specific object from a group of other objects. Topographical orientation is our ability to navigate our environment. Depth perception deals with how we can determine how far away or close something is to us.

160.

A patient scores a 21 on the mini mental state exam. Which of the following is TRUE?

  • This patient may have mild cognitive impairment

  • This patient may have moderate cognitive impairment

  • The patient may have severe cognitive impairment

  • The patient has no cognitive impairment

Correct answer: This patient may have mild cognitive impairment

The max score on the mini mental status exam is 30, indicating no impairment.

A score of 21-24 indicates mild issues. A score of 16-20 indicates moderate issues. A score of less than 16 indicates severe involvement.

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