No products in the cart.
ISSA CPT Exam Questions
Page 2 of 58
21.
Which of the following cues is important to remember during a single-leg Romanian deadlift?
-
Avoid hunching over
-
Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair
-
Reach all the way to the floor
-
Retract the shoulder blades
Correct answer: Avoid hunching over
The single-leg Romanian deadlift is a balance-strength exercise that challenges proper gluteal and abdominal muscle activation. A common form mistake is to hunch over, which is a result of not keeping the spine in a neutral position.
22.
As a result of consistent resistance training, force production in which of the following muscles will decrease during movement?
-
Antagonist muscle
-
Agonist muscle
-
Synergist muscle
Correct answer: Antagonist muscle
Antagonist muscle is correct because co-contraction, or contraction of both the agonist and antagonist muscles, decreases as a chronic adaptation of resistance training. Co-contraction refers to the simultaneous activation of both the agonist and antagonist during a motor task. This decreased co-contraction would decrease the antagonist torque that must be overcome by the agonist muscle during movement.
Agonist muscle is incorrect because this muscle typically increases force production as a result of chronic resistance training. Synergist muscle is incorrect because this muscle increases in force production due to increased motor unit synchronization as a result of training.
23.
Which organization is responsible for ensuring a supplement is safe before it is marketed?
-
The supplement manufacturer
-
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
-
The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
-
Both the supplement manufacturer and the FDA
Correct answer: The supplement manufacturer
The supplement manufacturer, not the FDA, is responsible for ensuring that a dietary supplement is safe before it goes on the market.
Furthermore, the FDA does not need to approve dietary supplements before they are sold.
Therefore, it is important as a fitness professional to educate your clients that just because a supplement is out on the market does not mean that it has been approved by the FDA.
24.
Which of the following does not account for any strength gains in children?
-
Hypertrophy
-
Improved motor skill performance
-
Neural adaptations
Correct answer: Hypertrophy
Hypertrophy is correct because children lack sufficient levels of circulating androgens to stimulate increases in muscle cross-sectional area. Children participating in supervised, safe weight training programs have been shown to increase muscular strength above and beyond the accompanying growth and maturation. These strength gains can be as high as 30 to 40 percent improvement over a few months.
Improved motor skill performance and neural adaptations are incorrect because these do account for strength gains in children.
25.
Which of the following is the most common supplement that a client is likely to be taking?
-
Vitamin and mineral supplement
-
Protein supplement
-
Creatine supplement
Correct answer: Vitamin and mineral supplement
Vitamin and mineral supplement is correct because the purpose of this supplement is general health, which can be attributed as a goal across many populations. In addition, these are perceived to be without risk. However, excess intake of vitamins and minerals is not beneficial and, depending on the circumstances, potentially harmful.
Protein supplement is incorrect because these are typically taken only by those who don't get enough dietary protein or who are looking to increase muscle mass. Creatine supplement is incorrect because these are only used by those looking to improve strength, speed, or muscle mass.
26.
Which of the following describes the correct foot position of the leg press exercise?
I. Hip-width apart
II. Toes pointed slightly outward
III. Feet on the bottom edge of the platform
IV. Feet flat
V. Allow heels to raise during the movement
-
I, II, and IV only
-
II, III, and IV only
-
I and V only
Correct answer: I, II, and IV only
I, II, and IV only is correct because this position will allow the client to apply maximum force during this exercise. The leg press is a hip and thigh exercise to improve muscular endurance, hypertrophy or strength in the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and quadriceps muscles. It can be used in place of a squat for a beginner or for a client who lacks flexibility and stability.
II, III and IV only is incorrect because the feet should be placed in the middle of the platform. I and V only is incorrect because allowing the heels to raise off the platform is a technique error.
27.
Which of the following stability ball exercises does not target all of the following muscle groups:
- hamstrings
- erector spinae
- gluteus maximus
-
Back hyperextension
-
Reverse back hyperextension
-
Supine hip lift
-
Supine leg curl
Correct answer: Back hyperextension
The stability ball back hyperextension exercise is the only exercise of those listed that does not target all three muscle groups. It only targets the erector spinae. It is also the only exercise of those listed that involves movement of the upper body instead of the lower body.
The back hyperextension is performed by lying in a prone position over the ball with the legs straight and the toes on the floor. With the hands behind the head, the torso is lifted away from the ball to full extension, targeting the muscles of the lower back.
The supine hip lift is performed lying on your back on the floor with the calves and heels on the ball, lifting the hips up using a hip extension movement. The supine leg curl is also performed lying on your back on the floor with your calves and feet on the ball. This exercise combines hip extension with knee flexion.
The reverse back hyperextension is performed in a prone position on top of the ball, with the hands on the floor. This is also a hip extension movement, lifting the legs and feet in the air.
28.
In which stage of change is a client who has been consistently training for two weeks?
-
Action
-
Maintenance
-
Contemplation
-
Preparation
Correct answer: Action
The Stages of Change model states that individuals progress through a series of behavior change stages and that movement through these stages is not linear but instead is cyclical. This model is made up of the following five stages:
- Precontemplation: Does not exercise and is not planning to start within the next 6 months
- Contemplation: Does not exercise but is planning to start within 6 months
- Preparation: Planning to exercise soon or is sporadically exercising
- Action: Exercising for less than 6 months
- Maintenance: Exercising consistently for more than 6 months
29.
Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?
-
Push-up
-
Bench press
-
Lat pull-down
-
Machine leg extension
Correct answer: Push-up
Closed-chain exercises require the distal extremities (hands or feet) to be in a stable position (on the floor or a fixed object), which means that the force applied by the client is not great enough to overcome the force provided by the fixed position. Examples include squats, pull-ups, and push-ups.
Open-chain exercises involve movements where the force applied by the body is enough to overcome the force provided by the resistance tool, and the distal extremities are not in a fixed position. Examples include machine leg extension, lat pull-down, and bench press.
30.
Which of the following hormones increase in concentration in response to a session of resistance training exercise?
-
All of these
-
Testosterone
-
Growth hormone
Correct answer: All of these
All of these is correct because these hormones, in addition to others, react to stress. An example of stress is resistance exercise. These hormones have an even greater response when the resistance training is higher volume (higher number of sets and repetitions) with short rest periods (one minute or less) and uses large muscle mass exercises. An example would be performing back squats for 4 sets of 10 repetitions with one minute of rest between sets. This example is likely to result in a significant hormonal response.
31.
During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?
-
The sarcomeres lengthen
-
The sarcomeres shorten
-
The sarcomeres stay the same length
-
The sarcomeres contract and lengthen simultaneously
Correct answer: The sarcomeres lengthen
When a muscle is stretched, the overlap within the sarcomeres of the thick and thin filaments decreases, allowing the muscle fibers to elongate.
When a muscle is contracted (shortened), the overlap within the sarcomeres of the thick and thin filaments increases.
32.
What is the purpose of corrective flexibility?
-
It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion
-
It improves soft tissue extensibility and increases neuromuscular efficiency
-
It functions in all three planes of motion and improves integrated soft tissue extensibility
-
It increases neuromuscular control and primarily utilizes reciprocal inhibition
Correct answer: It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion
Corrective exercise includes self-myofascial release and static stretching and should be utilized during Phase 1 training. Autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition are the processes that are enacted in corrective flexibility.
33.
Which of the following is the correct position of the ankle pad for the leg curl exercise?
-
Back of the heel just above the top of the shoe
-
Back of the lower leg in the middle of the calf muscle
-
Back of the heel just above the sole of the shoe
Correct answer: Back of the heel just above the top of the shoe
Back of the heel just above the top of the shoe is correct because this is a comfortable position for the client and allows them to generate the maximum amount of torque available to move the ankle pad. Another important positioning aspect of this exercise is to ensure the knees are aligned with the axis of the machine. The leg curl exercise primarily trains the hamstrings for muscular strength, muscular endurance or hypertrophy training goals.
Back of the lower leg in the middle of the calf muscle is incorrect because this is positioned too high on the leg and will decrease torque production of the client. Back of the heel just above the sole of the shoe is incorrect because this is too low and may lead to client injury.
34.
Which of the following is a recommended sequence of tests that promotes the most accurate results when assessing general fitness?
I. Waist circumference
II. Rockport walking test
III. YMCA bench press test
IV. Sit-and-reach
-
I, IV, III, II
-
II, I, VI, III
-
III, I, II, IV
Correct answer: I, IV, III, II
I, IV, III, II is correct because for general fitness resting tests should be performed first, followed by other non-fatiguing tests, muscular strength tests, local muscular endurance tests and then sub-maximal aerobic capacity tests. This order ensures optimum performance and adequate recovery in order to yield accurate results. Test order is influenced by the number of clients being tested, components that are being evaluated, the amount of skill involved, the energy system demand, the time available and the goal of the client.
II, I, VI, III is incorrect because submaximal aerobic capacity tests should be completed last. III, I, II, IV is incorrect because local muscular endurance tests should occur after non-fatiguing tests.
35.
Which of the following is the proper exercise order for a senior client if all were included in one training session?
I. Flexibility exercises
II. Aerobic endurance exercises
III. Resistance training
IV. Warm-up exercises
-
IV, II, III, I
-
II, III, I, IV
-
IV, III, I, II
Correct answer: IV, II, III, I
IV, II, III, I is correct because the warm-up and aerobic endurance activity is less strenuous and prepares this population for the more strenuous resistance exercise. Performing flexibility exercises after resistance training provides a muscle-relaxing conclusion to the training session. If a senior client is only performing resistance training in a given training session, 5 to 10 minutes of light aerobic activity should still be performed as part of a warm-up.
II, III, I, IV is incorrect because a warm-up would never be performed last. IV, III, I II is incorrect because it is recommended that seniors perform aerobic exercise before resistance training.
36.
For the proper execution of the resistance band biceps curl, the upper arms should be in which of the following positions at the top of the movement?
-
Perpendicular to the ground
-
Parallel to the ground
-
Angled forty-five degrees from the ground
Correct answer: Perpendicular to the ground
Perpendicular to the ground is correct because this indicates that the shoulder was stabilized and only the targeted muscles were used to raise the hands. At the top of the movement the hands should be 4 to 6 inches away from the shoulders. The elbows are the only joint that should move during this exercise.
Parallel to the ground is incorrect because this indicates that the anterior deltoid performed the movement of this exercise. Angled forty-five degrees from the ground is incorrect because this indicates that the target muscles of this exercise were not the only muscles that contracted concentrically.
37.
Which of the following is considered a niche in the training business?
-
Women's fitness
-
Small group training
-
Private gym
-
Independent contracting
Correct answer: Women's fitness
A niche is a specific product or service that a trainer can offer in contrast to what is generally available on the market. Most gyms cater to all genders, but some trainers and gyms specialize in fitness for women.
Small group training is common in most gyms, and most areas have private gyms in addition to commercial ones.
Independent contracting is not a niche but is a common occurrence in small gyms and boutiques where trainers are sought out for their availability and experience.
38.
In many cases, how long does it take for an employer to decide whether they will consider someone based on their resume?
-
Less than 30 seconds
-
By the end of the business day
-
A few hours
-
A few days
Correct answer: Less than 30 seconds
Quality resumes are important for fitness professionals who wish to gain employment. A well-structured resume avoids being considered for elimination through its professional appearance and adequate content. It can take only 30 seconds for an employer to decide whether to accept or reject the applicant based on the resume.
39.
When a potential client says "yes" to a personal training package, when should their first appointment be scheduled?
-
Within 48 hours
-
Within 24 hours
-
Within 1 week
-
Within 2 weeks
Correct answer: Within 48 hours
When a potential client says "yes" to a product, program, or personal training package, go through the following steps:
- Complete the sale
- Schedule the first training session for a time within 48 hours of the sale
- Within 24 hours, send a thank you card
- Confirm the first appointment with a phone call
40.
What is the first movement of the upward movement phase of the bent knee sit-up?
-
Flex the neck to bring the chin toward the chest
-
Keep the chin away from the chest and begin to lift the shoulders
-
Clasp the hands behind the head and use the hands to help pull the head off the floor
-
Lift the feet off the floor to bring the knees in toward the chest
Correct answer: Flex the neck to bring the chin toward the chest
The bent knee sit-up targets the rectus abdominus and involves flexion of the trunk. The movement begins in a supine position with the knees bent and the feet flat on the ground. The arms should be folded across the chest and should not be placed behind the head.
The exercise should begin with flexing the neck to bring the chin toward the chest, followed by curling the torso to bring the upper back and shoulders off the floor. The lower back, feet, and hips should remain on the floor throughout the movement.