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ISSA CPT Exam Questions
Page 3 of 58
41.
Which of the following describes the correct position at the end of the forward movement phase of the barbell forward lunge?
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The weight is distributed evenly between both feet, with an upright torso. The front knee is bent to about 90 degrees with a vertical shin, and the back knee is bent to about 1-2" above the floor.
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The weight is primarily on the front leg. The front leg is bent to 90 degrees with the knee in front of the toes of the lead foot. The torso is leaning forward over the front leg, and the back knee is bent and should be touching the floor.
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The weight is primarily on the back leg, with an upright torso. The front leg is bent to 90 degrees with the front knee behind the ankle of the lead foot. The back knee is bent to about 1-2" above the floor.
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The weight is distributed evenly between the feet, with the torso leaning forward over the lead leg. The front knee is bent to 90 degrees with a vertical shin, and the back leg is straight.
Correct answer: The weight is distributed evenly between both feet, with an upright torso. The front knee is bent to about 90 degrees with a vertical shin, and the back knee is bent to about 1-2" above the floor.
The forward lunge is performed with the barbell on the shoulders behind the head. Starting with the feet about hip-width apart, the lifter will begin by taking a large step forward, allowing the heel of the back foot to come off the ground. The front foot will remain flat. Once the front foot is planted, the lifter shifts their weight forward until the weight is evenly distributed between both legs, while maintaining an upright torso.
In this position, the lifter will bend both knees to lower themselves into the lunge until the front knee is bent to about 90 degrees. The front shin should remain vertical throughout the movement with the knees in line with the toes. The back knee should finish about 1 to 2 inches above the floor at the lowest position.
To complete the repetition, the lifter pushes back up and brings the front leg back to meet the other leg.
42.
Which of the following is true regarding bodyweight exercise?
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Bodyweight exercise can help new clients safely learn new movement patterns that will apply to functional movements they perform throughout the day
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Bodyweight exercises are easy to progress in terms of resistance
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Bodyweight exercise is only appropriate for children, not adults
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There is no way to increase the intensity of bodyweight exercise
Correct answer: Bodyweight exercise can help new clients safely learn new movement patterns that will apply to functional movements they perform throughout the day
Squats are the perfect example of a bodyweight movement we all perform every day. We squat when we sit in chairs, when we stand up from chairs, and countless other times throughout the day. By training squats at the gym, we can safely learn this movement pattern and become more efficient with our movements during the course of a day.
Bodyweight exercises are difficult to progress in terms of resistance, but intensity can be modified through changing tempo, speed, etc. Children, adults, and everyone else can benefit from bodyweight exercise; it is free, effective, and safe.
43.
If a personal trainer is working in a location where they are legally allowed to provide nutritional guidance, under what circumstance should they refer a client to a nutrition professional such as a licensed nutritionist or registered dietician? (Answer based solely on the information provided)
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For a client with osteoporosis
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For an overweight client interested in weight loss
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For an athletic client interested in weight gain
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For a client who is currently consuming a low-fat diet
Correct answer: For a client with osteoporosis
Any individual with a diagnosed disease should always be referred to a nutritional professional. This is known as medical nutrition therapy and should be used for individuals with conditions such as:
- osteoporosis
- gastrointestinal disorders
- eating disorders
- heart disease
- elevated cholesterol
Regardless of the licensure requirements that exist where a personal trainer conducts business, individuals with diseases such as those in the above list require greater assistance in determining their nutritional needs and to provide guidance for their goals.
It's helpful for a personal trainer to establish a professional connection to licensed nutritional professionals who can provide these services and to whom they can refer clients as needed.
44.
Which of the following anthropometric measurements would indicate that an individual is obese?
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An individual who is 1.5 meters tall and weighs 74 kilograms
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An individual who is 1.4 meters tall and weighs 50 kilograms
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An individual who is 1.9 meters tall and weighs 104 kilograms
Correct answer: An individual who is 1.5 meters tall and weighs 74 kilograms
An individual who is 1.5 meters tall and weighs 74 kilograms is correct because those with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or greater are considered obese. This individual has a BMI of 32.9. Body mass index is a slightly more accurate indicator of body fat than estimates based simply on height and weight.
An individual who is 1.4 meters tall and weighs 50 kilograms is incorrect because their BMI is 25.5. An individual who is 1.9 meters tall and weighs 104 kilograms is incorrect because their BMI is 28.8.
45.
Growth hormone is stimulated by all of the following except:
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Catecholamines
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Deep sleep
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Testosterone
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Vigorous exercise
Correct answer: Catecholamines
Growth hormone is an anabolic hormone that is responsible for increases in the development of bone and muscle mass; additionally, it promotes protein synthesis and fat burning. Estrogen, testosterone, deep sleep, and vigorous exercise all stimulate the production of growth hormone.
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) are hormones produced by the adrenal glands. These hormones help prepare the body for activity. They do not stimulate the production of growth hormone.
46.
All of the following are examples of positive body language except:
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Standing with arms crossed
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Maintaining eye contact
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Speaking calmly and confidently
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Smiling
Correct answer: Standing with arms crossed
By practicing positive body language, a fitness professional can quicken the development of rapport with their clients. The more comfortable the client feels, the more at ease they will be and the more enjoyable the session will be.
Examples of positive body language include the following:
- Maintaining eye contact
- Speaking calmly and confidently
- Smiling
Standing with arms crossed is a sign that an individual is closed off to the conversation.
47.
In terms of exercise order, during a workout designed to emphasize the "pushing" muscles of the upper body, which of the following exercises should be completed first?
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Bench press
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Front shoulder raise
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Sit-up
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Lat pull down
Correct answer: Bench press
The bench press is a compound upper body movement that should be prioritized in a workout designed to strengthen this part of the body. In terms of exercise order, multi-joint and compound movements should be completed early in the workout to avoid the effects of fatigue.
Front shoulder raises could be completed during an upper body pushing workout, but as an accessory movement, they should not be performed before a bench press or other compound movements. Sit-ups and other core stability/strengthening exercises could be performed during an upper body pushing workout, but they should not be performed before bench presses or other compound movements. Lat pull downs are a multi-joint upper body exercise. However, the movement focuses less on the pushing muscles of the upper body and should, therefore, not be performed before bench presses or other similar multi-joint movements for this muscle group.
48.
How can a fitness professional enable a client to use the T component of the goal-setting acronym SMART?
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Have them create a goal timeline
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Have them consider the who, what, when, where, why, and how in developing the goal
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Have them consider the resources needed to ensure the goal is met
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Have them make sure the goal is practical
Correct answer: Have them create a goal timeline
The goal-setting acronym SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, and Timely. Each component of SMART is explained below:
- Specific: Goals are detailed and easily understood
- Measurable: Goals are quantifiable
- Attainable: Goals are challenging but not extreme
- Realistic: Goals are reasonable, based on the client's track record and personal beliefs
- Timely: Goals have a specific date of completion
49.
Which of the following is the most appropriate response for a personal trainer who witnesses a client experience hypoglycemia and lose consciousness?
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Immediately contacting emergency services
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Attempting to feed them sugar-laden liquids to counteract the hypoglycemia
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Gently shaking the client in an attempt to wake them
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Telling a supervisor
Correct answer: Immediately contacting emergency services
Once a victim has lost consciousness, emergency personnel need to be on the scene as quickly as possible.
An unconscious victim should never be fed or given liquids. While a trainer may try to rouse an unconscious victim, emergency services need to be contacted ASAP. Unless the supervisor is the only one with a phone or the ability to contact emergency services, 911 should be called before anything else happens to the victim.
50.
Relative flexibility can best be described as:
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The human movement system's way of finding the path of least resistance during movement
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The neuromuscular system allowing agonists, antagonists, and stabilizers to synergistically produce muscle forces
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The range through which a joint may be freely moved with no resistance or pain
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The increase in normal movement and functionality of a joint, which affects range of motion
Correct answer: The human movement system's way of finding the path of least resistance during movement
The body's goal is to always move as efficiently as possible. This means that if a person is dealing with a tight muscle group in one area, the body will alter its movement patterns to achieve movement. This is one of the ways compensations and dysfunctions develop.
51.
How does training with a BOSU ball increase exercise intensity?
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It decreases stability
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It increases resistance
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It increases volume
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It decreases neuromuscular activity
Correct answer: It decreases stability
The BOSU ball's unstable surface provides increased proprioception and reduced stability, which increases intensity. It has no bearing on the level of resistance or volume of the exercise in comparison to a platform of the same height, and it increases neuromuscular activity.
52.
Which is the primary reason that certification is an important component of becoming a personal trainer?
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A certification indicates knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for safe and effective workouts
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A personal trainer is required to have a certification
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A certification is required for reputability and is highly desired by potential clients
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It is important to most potential employers that a trainer have a certification
Correct answer: A certification indicates knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for safe and effective workouts
A certification is not required, and some small gyms may even hire a trainer based on experience and client reviews. However, education is important to success as a trainer because it focuses on safety and effectiveness for the client.
53.
Which of the following muscle fiber types is most commonly activated with strength training?
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Type II
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Type I
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Type Ia
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Type Ix
Correct answer: Type II
Type II muscle fibers are large in size, quick to produce maximal tension, and fatigue more quickly than Type I muscle fibers. These characteristics show why strength training relies more on the recruitment of Type II fibers than Type I fibers.
Type I muscle fibers are also referred to as slow-twitch muscle fibers, and they have more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than Type II muscle fibers, which makes them slower to fatigue. They also produce less force and specialize in long-term contractions for stabilization.
Type II muscle fibers are also referred to as fast-twitch muscle fibers and have fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than Type I muscle fibers, making them quicker to fatigue. They produce more force and specialize in short-term contractions for force and power. They can also be broken down into further subcategories of Type IIa and Type IIx, which are considered intermediate fast-twitch muscle fibers.
54.
Which of the following clients is in the highest risk stratification for coronary artery disease?
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A 50-year-old female with fainting events
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A 60-year-old male with family history of coronary artery disease
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A 30-year-old female with a BMI of 30
Correct answer: A 50-year-old female with fainting events
A 50-year-old female with fainting events is correct because this individual has a sign or symptom of coronary artery disease. This places her in the high-risk category, which are those with a known disease or one or more signs or symptoms. The ability to stratify risk allows a personal trainer to decide whether a referral for medical clearance is needed.
A 60-year-old male with family history of coronary artery disease is incorrect because this individual would be placed in the moderate risk category. A 30-year-old female with a BMI of 30 is incorrect because, unless other risk factors are discovered, she would be placed in the low-risk category.
55.
A client is performing a biceps curl, and can hold the contraction for 5 seconds at the top of the motion before returning the weight to the starting position. Which of the following best describes the type of muscle action during the hold?
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Isometric
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Concentric
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Eccentric
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Isotonic
Correct answer: Isometric
Isometric muscle actions are those in which the joint angle doesn't change, such as a plank, a held squat, or a held biceps curl. Isotonic movements contain both a positive (concentric) and negative (eccentric) component, such as during a leg press where the legs flex and extend in an alternating pattern.
56.
Which of the following maladies that can be uncovered by a medical history poses the least immediate danger to a client beginning an exercise program?
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Orthopedic conditions
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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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Coronary artery disease
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Metabolic disease
Correct answer: Orthopedic conditions
Orthopedic conditions is correct because these are the conditions that are least likely to result in death. This is not to say that these should be taken lightly, because relatively minor issues, such as a sprained ankle, knee tendonitis, or low back pain, present challenges that must be addressed in the program, and more serious concerns such as degenerative bone disease or rheumatoid arthritis have implications that lead to advanced complications. Even though these issues are not life-threatening, they may still require physician referral and medical clearance prior to beginning an exercise regime.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and coronary artery disease are incorrect because these could lead to death if not managed before beginning an exercise regime.
57.
Which resistance training style is ideal for someone who wants to improve circulation?
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Peripheral heart action system
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Split-routine system
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Vertical loading
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Pyramid system
Correct answer: Peripheral heart action system
This system is a variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body movements. This requires blood circulation to be focused on one half of the body before moving to the other half of the body. It is also great for improved body composition.
58.
A pregnant client is in the middle of her second trimester. Which of the following exercises should not be included in her resistance training program?
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Dumbbell chest press
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Seated overhead press
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Lunges
Correct answer: Dumbbell chest press
Dumbbell chest press is correct because after the first trimester of pregnancy, the supine (back-lying) position results in restricted venous return of blood to the heart. This is because the enlarged uterus may occlude the veins. In addition, this position reduces cardiac output and may cause supine hypotensive syndrome.
Seated overhead press and lunges are incorrect because these exercises are not performed in a supine position and are therefore acceptable for a pregnant woman.
59.
What consideration should be made for obese clients?
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Endeavor to make them feel emotionally safe
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Strive to ensure they burn as many calories as possible
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Calculate caloric burn of the workout in comparison to the diet
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Diet recommendations should include a 1,500-calorie goal
Correct answer: Endeavor to make them feel emotionally safe
Obese clients may be very sensitive about their body and abilities, and the trainer should consider this during conversation and instruction. The trainer should empower them to embrace their existing abilities and work toward performance goals that enhance metabolism and improve fitness.
The workouts should burn sufficient calories, but the caloric burn should not be the most important focus of the workout. Dietary assessment and calorie goals are outside the scope of practice of a personal trainer, unless they are also a certified nutritionist or dietitian.
60.
All of the following foods contain primarily saturated fat except:
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Avocados
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Meat
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Cheese
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Eggs
Correct answer: Avocados
The types of fat an individual consumes, as opposed to the total amount of fat, is an important influence on overall health as well as the risk of cardiovascular disease. A higher intake of saturated fats has been associated with increased levels of LDL cholesterol, which can increase the risk for heart disease.
Therefore, it is recommended that adults limit their calories from saturated fats and instead consume healthy fats, such as polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats.
Avocados are primarily made up of monounsaturated fats.